Divisions and types of the skeletal system MCQs With Answer

Understanding the divisions and types of the skeletal system is essential for B. Pharm students who study anatomy, pharmacology, and bone-related therapeutics. This concise overview emphasizes osteology keywords: axial skeleton, appendicular skeleton, long bone, short bone, flat bone, irregular bone, sesamoid bone, compact bone, spongy bone, and ossification. It reviews bone functions, marrow types, and clinically relevant features like ossification centers and bone markings. Clear understanding aids pharmacotherapy and imaging interpretation. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which two major divisions make up the human skeletal system?

  • Axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton
  • Central skeleton and peripheral skeleton
  • Superior skeleton and inferior skeleton
  • Primary skeleton and secondary skeleton

Correct Answer: Axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton

Q2. Which bone type is characterized by being longer than it is wide and containing a medullary cavity?

  • Short bone
  • Flat bone
  • Irregular bone
  • Long bone

Correct Answer: Long bone

Q3. Which of the following is a classic example of a short bone?

  • Femur
  • Vertebra
  • Carpal (wrist) bone
  • Scapula

Correct Answer: Carpal (wrist) bone

Q4. Flat bones primarily function to:

  • Serve as levers for movement
  • Provide extensive protection and broad surfaces for muscle attachment
  • Contain multiple epiphyseal plates for rapid growth
  • Store large marrow cavities only

Correct Answer: Provide extensive protection and broad surfaces for muscle attachment

Q5. Which bone type includes vertebrae and pelvic bones?

  • Short bones
  • Flat bones
  • Irregular bones
  • Sesamoid bones

Correct Answer: Irregular bones

Q6. Sesamoid bones are best described as:

  • Large flat plates forming the skull vault
  • Bones embedded within tendons to modify pressure and protect tendons
  • Cylindrical bones with a marrow cavity
  • Bones containing air-filled sinuses

Correct Answer: Bones embedded within tendons to modify pressure and protect tendons

Q7. The patella is classified as which type of bone?

  • Flat bone
  • Short bone
  • Sesamoid bone
  • Irregular bone

Correct Answer: Sesamoid bone

Q8. Compact bone differs from spongy bone in that compact bone:

  • Has trabeculae and bone marrow spaces
  • Is composed of osteons (Haversian systems) and is dense
  • Is found only in the epiphyses of long bones
  • Is primarily composed of cartilage

Correct Answer: Is composed of osteons (Haversian systems) and is dense

Q9. Spongy (cancellous) bone is predominantly found in which regions of long bones?

  • Diaphysis only
  • Metaphysis and epiphysis
  • Periosteum layer exclusively
  • Compact outer cortex only

Correct Answer: Metaphysis and epiphysis

Q10. Which cell type is primarily responsible for bone formation (synthesis of osteoid)?

  • Osteoclasts
  • Chondrocytes
  • Osteoblasts
  • Adipocytes

Correct Answer: Osteoblasts

Q11. Which bone cell type resorbs mineralized bone matrix and is multinucleated?

  • Osteocyte
  • Osteoclast
  • Osteoblast
  • Prochondroblast

Correct Answer: Osteoclast

Q12. Intramembranous ossification primarily forms which of the following?

  • Most long bones like femur and tibia
  • Most flat bones of the skull and clavicle
  • Vertebral bodies and pelvic bones
  • Articular cartilage surfaces

Correct Answer: Most flat bones of the skull and clavicle

Q13. Endochondral ossification is the developmental process responsible for formation of:

  • Skull vault bones directly from mesenchyme
  • Long bones from a hyaline cartilage model
  • Teeth enamel
  • Sesamoid bones only

Correct Answer: Long bones from a hyaline cartilage model

Q14. The diaphysis of a long bone is best defined as the:

  • Epiphyseal growth plate
  • End region covered with articular cartilage
  • Shaft or central tubular portion of the bone
  • Trabecular interior at the ends

Correct Answer: Shaft or central tubular portion of the bone

Q15. Which structure covers the outer surface of bone and contains osteoprogenitor cells and blood vessels?

  • Endosteum
  • Periosteum
  • Articular cartilage
  • Medullary cavity

Correct Answer: Periosteum

Q16. In adults, red bone marrow (active hematopoiesis) is most commonly located in:

  • Diaphyses of long bones predominantly
  • Flat bones like the sternum, pelvis, and vertebrae
  • All cranial bones only
  • Only in the clavicle

Correct Answer: Flat bones like the sternum, pelvis, and vertebrae

Q17. The epiphyseal plate is composed of which tissue before closure?

  • Hyaline cartilage
  • Fibrocartilage
  • Compact bone
  • Adipose tissue

Correct Answer: Hyaline cartilage

Q18. A foramen, as a bone marking, is best defined as a:

  • Projection where muscle attaches
  • Shallow depression
  • Round or oval opening through a bone
  • Large rounded articular surface

Correct Answer: Round or oval opening through a bone

Q19. Which component of bone matrix provides tensile strength and flexibility?

  • Hydroxyapatite (calcium phosphate crystals)
  • Proteoglycans only
  • Type I collagen fibers
  • Elastin fibers

Correct Answer: Type I collagen fibers

Q20. Osteons (Haversian systems) are microscopic structural units found primarily in:

  • Spongy bone
  • Articular cartilage
  • Compact bone
  • Bone marrow

Correct Answer: Compact bone

Q21. Canaliculi in bone tissue function to:

  • Store marrow cells
  • Allow nutrient and waste exchange between osteocytes and blood
  • Form the periosteal outer layer
  • Act as growth plates for elongation

Correct Answer: Allow nutrient and waste exchange between osteocytes and blood

Q22. Which of the following bones is a component of the appendicular skeleton?

  • Sternum
  • Occipital bone
  • Humerus
  • Vertebra

Correct Answer: Humerus

Q23. Pneumatic bones contain air-filled cavities; which skull bone commonly has sinuses (is pneumatic)?

  • Femur
  • Frontal bone
  • Scapula
  • Patella

Correct Answer: Frontal bone

Q24. The metaphysis of a long bone refers to the region:

  • Between the epiphysis and diaphysis, containing the growth plate in children
  • That is the articular cartilage surface only
  • That forms the periosteum exclusively
  • Which is purely cortical bone with no trabeculae

Correct Answer: Between the epiphysis and diaphysis, containing the growth plate in children

Q25. During fracture healing, which cell type initially forms new woven bone?

  • Chondroclasts
  • Osteoblasts
  • Adipocytes
  • Fibroblasts only

Correct Answer: Osteoblasts

Q26. Bone remodeling is a continuous process involving which paired actions?

  • Ossification and calcification only
  • Osteoblast-mediated deposition and osteoclast-mediated resorption
  • Cartilage formation and cartilage resorption only
  • Adipogenesis and lipolysis in marrow

Correct Answer: Osteoblast-mediated deposition and osteoclast-mediated resorption

Q27. Which of the following is NOT a typical function of the skeletal system?

  • Mineral storage (e.g., calcium, phosphate)
  • Hematopoiesis (blood cell formation)
  • Detoxification of systemic drugs in hepatocytes
  • Support and protection of organs

Correct Answer: Detoxification of systemic drugs in hepatocytes

Q28. The axial skeleton includes all EXCEPT which of the following?

  • Skull
  • Rib cage
  • Vertebral column
  • Pelvic girdle

Correct Answer: Pelvic girdle

Q29. Secondary ossification centers typically appear in which region of a long bone?

  • Diaphysis during embryonic development only
  • At the epiphyses after birth
  • In the periosteum as adults age
  • Only within articular cartilage surfaces

Correct Answer: At the epiphyses after birth

Q30. Which bone marking term describes a large, rounded articular projection often found at the end of bones?

  • Foramen
  • Condyle
  • Fissure
  • Facet

Correct Answer: Condyle

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