Depression MCQs With Answer provide B. Pharm students a focused, exam-ready way to master clinical pharmacology, pathophysiology, and therapeutics of depressive disorders. This concise, keyword-rich introduction covers antidepressant classes (SSRIs, SNRIs, TCAs, MAOIs, atypicals), mechanisms of action, pharmacokinetics, CYP interactions, adverse effects, monitoring, and special-population considerations. Questions emphasize evidence-based treatment, diagnostic scales (PHQ-9, HAM-D), serotonin syndrome, drug interactions, and management of treatment-resistant depression. Each MCQ is written to deepen your understanding for pharmacy practice, counselling, and safe dispensing. Clear answers reinforce learning and help prepare for university exams and hospital rotations. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.
Q1. What is the minimum duration of symptoms required to diagnose a major depressive episode according to DSM-5?
- 1 week
- 2 weeks
- 6 weeks
- 3 months
Correct Answer: 2 weeks
Q2. Which rating scale is specifically designed to screen for depressive symptoms in primary care and self-reporting?
- HAM-D (Hamilton Depression Rating Scale)
- Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
- PHQ-9 (Patient Health Questionnaire-9)
- MADRS (Montgomery–Åsberg Depression Rating Scale)
Correct Answer: PHQ-9 (Patient Health Questionnaire-9)
Q3. Which hypothesis historically underpins many antidepressant mechanisms by implicating deficits in serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine?
- Neurotrophic hypothesis
- Monoamine hypothesis
- Inflammatory hypothesis
- Glutamatergic hypothesis
Correct Answer: Monoamine hypothesis
Q4. Which drug is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) with the longest half-life due to an active metabolite?
- Sertraline
- Fluoxetine
- Paroxetine
- Citalopram
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Q5. Which adverse effect is most commonly associated with SSRIs?
- Orthostatic hypotension
- Anticholinergic delirium
- Sexual dysfunction
- Severe QT prolongation in all patients
Correct Answer: Sexual dysfunction
Q6. Which antidepressant is primarily a norepinephrine–dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI) and is often used when sexual side effects are a concern?
- Bupropion
- Mirtazapine
- Trazodone
- Venlafaxine
Correct Answer: Bupropion
Q7. Which antidepressant class is associated with significant anticholinergic effects and cardiac conduction abnormalities in overdose?
- SSRIs
- SNRIs
- Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
- MAOIs
Correct Answer: Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
Q8. Phenelzine is an example of which class of antidepressants and what is a key dietary restriction?
- SSRI; avoid grapefruit
- TCA; low-sodium diet
- MAOI; avoid tyramine-rich foods
- SNRI; avoid high-protein meals
Correct Answer: MAOI; avoid tyramine-rich foods
Q9. Which serotonin-related adverse reaction presents with agitation, hyperreflexia, autonomic instability, and can be life-threatening?
- Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
- Serotonin syndrome
- Anticholinergic syndrome
- Withdrawal syndrome
Correct Answer: Serotonin syndrome
Q10. First-line pharmacotherapy for moderate to severe unipolar depression in adults commonly includes which class?
- MAOIs
- SSRIs
- High-dose benzodiazepines
- First-generation antipsychotics
Correct Answer: SSRIs
Q11. Which antidepressant acts as an antagonist at central alpha-2 receptors and enhances noradrenergic and serotonergic transmission?
- Mirtazapine
- Venlafaxine
- Fluoxetine
- Bupropion
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Q12. A patient on an SSRI develops hyponatremia due to SIADH. Which population is at highest risk?
- Young adults aged 20–30
- Middle-aged men
- Elderly patients
- Infants
Correct Answer: Elderly patients
Q13. Which SNRI inhibits both serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake and is indicated for depression and neuropathic pain?
- Sertraline
- Venlafaxine
- Fluoxetine
- Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Venlafaxine
Q14. Which pharmacokinetic interaction is most relevant for fluoxetine and paroxetine?
- Induction of CYP3A4 leading to decreased levels of co-medications
- Inhibition of CYP2D6 leading to increased levels of CYP2D6 substrates
- Increase in renal clearance of co-administered drugs
- No significant CYP interactions
Correct Answer: Inhibition of CYP2D6 leading to increased levels of CYP2D6 substrates
Q15. Which antidepressant is contraindicated with MAOIs because it can precipitate serotonin syndrome when combined?
- Bupropion
- Tranylcypromine
- SSRIs (e.g., sertraline)
- Mirtazapine
Correct Answer: SSRIs (e.g., sertraline)
Q16. Which agent is an NMDA receptor antagonist used for treatment-resistant depression with rapid onset of effect?
- Esketamine
- Phenelzine
- Imipramine
- Sertraline
Correct Answer: Esketamine
Q17. What is the recommended washout period when switching from fluoxetine to an MAOI to avoid serotonin syndrome?
- 5 days
- 7 days
- 14 days
- 28 days
Correct Answer: 28 days
Q18. Which antidepressant is associated with hepatotoxicity and requires caution or monitoring of liver function?
- Sertraline
- Nefazodone
- Escitalopram
- Bupropion
Correct Answer: Nefazodone
Q19. Which augmentation strategy has evidence for use in treatment-resistant depression?
- Adding lithium to an antidepressant
- Switching to benzodiazepine monotherapy
- Increasing SSRI dose beyond twice the maximum
- Combining two MAOIs
Correct Answer: Adding lithium to an antidepressant
Q20. What is a major contraindication to electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)?
- Uncontrolled hypertension or recent myocardial infarction without stabilization
- Unipolar depression
- Young age under 30
- Concurrent SSRI therapy
Correct Answer: Uncontrolled hypertension or recent myocardial infarction without stabilization
Q21. Which antidepressant is most likely to cause weight gain and increased appetite via H1 histamine antagonism?
- Fluoxetine
- Mirtazapine
- Sertraline
- Bupropion
Correct Answer: Mirtazapine
Q22. Which adverse effect is characteristic of tricyclic antidepressant overdose and is treated with intravenous sodium bicarbonate?
- Serotonin syndrome
- Severe anticholinergic diarrhea
- Cardiac conduction block and wide QRS
- Acute hepatic failure
Correct Answer: Cardiac conduction block and wide QRS
Q23. Which antidepressant can lower seizure threshold and is relatively contraindicated in patients with seizure disorders?
- Bupropion
- Escitalopram
- Sertraline
- Mirtazapine
Correct Answer: Bupropion
Q24. Which lab or clinical parameter should be monitored when starting an SNRI like venlafaxine at higher doses?
- Serum potassium
- Blood pressure
- Blood glucose
- Serum magnesium
Correct Answer: Blood pressure
Q25. Which herbal supplement commonly used for mild depression has significant interactions with SSRIs and can increase serotonin risk?
- Omega-3 fatty acids
- St. John’s Wort (Hypericum)
- Ginkgo biloba
- Echinacea
Correct Answer: St. John’s Wort (Hypericum)
Q26. For pregnant patients with depression, which SSRI has been associated with increased risk of congenital cardiac malformations and is usually avoided if possible?
- Paroxetine
- Sertraline
- Fluoxetine
- Citalopram
Correct Answer: Paroxetine
Q27. What is the black box warning common to most antidepressants regarding younger patients?
- Risk of dependency
- Increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors in children, adolescents, and young adults
- Severe hepatic failure
- Irreversible sexual dysfunction
Correct Answer: Increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors in children, adolescents, and young adults
Q28. Which antidepressant is indicated particularly for depression with prominent insomnia due to sedative properties at lower doses?
- Trazodone
- Fluoxetine
- Bupropion
- Venlafaxine
Correct Answer: Trazodone
Q29. Which mechanism best describes mirtazapine’s action on serotonergic receptors contributing to antidepressant effects?
- 5-HT1A direct agonism
- 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 antagonism with increased 5-HT1-mediated transmission
- Inhibition of serotonin synthesis
- MAO-A inhibition
Correct Answer: 5-HT2 and 5-HT3 antagonism with increased 5-HT1-mediated transmission
Q30. Which antidepressant requires measurement of plasma levels to guide dosing in some cases due to narrow therapeutic index?
- Sertraline
- Amitriptyline (TCA)
- Escitalopram
- Venlafaxine
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline (TCA)
Q31. Which condition must be ruled out before starting an antidepressant because antidepressants can induce mania in this disorder?
- Panic disorder
- Bipolar disorder
- Generalized anxiety disorder
- Dysthymia
Correct Answer: Bipolar disorder
Q32. Which neurotransmitter system is the primary target of ketamine’s rapid antidepressant action?
- Serotonergic system
- GABAergic system
- Glutamatergic (NMDA receptor blockade)
- Dopaminergic D2 receptor antagonism
Correct Answer: Glutamatergic (NMDA receptor blockade)
Q33. What is the typical onset of clinical improvement with standard SSRI therapy?
- Few hours
- 1–3 days
- 2–4 weeks, with full effect often 6–8 weeks
- 6 months
Correct Answer: 2–4 weeks, with full effect often 6–8 weeks
Q34. Which antidepressant is associated with significant risk of QT interval prolongation at higher doses and requires caution?
- Citalopram
- Sertraline
- Bupropion
- Fluvoxamine
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Q35. Which clinical feature differentiates bipolar depression from unipolar major depression and affects pharmaceutical choice?
- Presence of psychomotor retardation
- History of manic or hypomanic episodes
- Insomnia
- Weight loss
Correct Answer: History of manic or hypomanic episodes
Q36. Which antidepressant is a useful choice in depressed patients who also need smoking cessation support?
- Mirtazapine
- Bupropion
- Fluoxetine
- Amitriptyline
Correct Answer: Bupropion
Q37. Which medication is an example of an irreversible MAOI used in refractory depression?
- Phenelzine
- Sertraline
- Venlafaxine
- Esketamine
Correct Answer: Phenelzine
Q38. Which antidepressant is associated with risk of hepatotoxicity and is no longer widely used because of this risk?
- Nefazodone
- Fluoxetine
- Sertraline
- Escitalopram
Correct Answer: Nefazodone
Q39. What is the main clinical concern when combining SSRIs with anticoagulants like warfarin?
- Reduced anticoagulant effect causing clot risk
- Increased bleeding risk due to platelet dysfunction and CYP interactions
- Acute hypertensive crisis
- Severe hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: Increased bleeding risk due to platelet dysfunction and CYP interactions
Q40. Which antidepressant’s effectiveness is increased by concomitant CYP2D6 metabolism and may require dose adjustment in CYP2D6 poor metabolizers?
- Fluoxetine (active inhibitor of CYP2D6)
- Tranylcypromine (MAOI)
- Amitriptyline (TCA)
- Esketamine
Correct Answer: Amitriptyline (TCA)
Q41. Which treatment has FDA approval specifically for postpartum depression and acts as a neuroactive steroid (GABA-A modulator)?
- Fluoxetine
- Brexanolone
- Venlafaxine
- Bupropion
Correct Answer: Brexanolone
Q42. Which medication is least likely to cause sexual dysfunction among common antidepressants?
- Paroxetine
- Sertraline
- Bupropion
- Fluoxetine
Correct Answer: Bupropion
Q43. Which antidepressant class requires dietary tyramine restrictions to prevent hypertensive crises?
- SSRIs
- SNRIs
- MAOIs
- TCAs
Correct Answer: MAOIs
Q44. What is a common and clinically significant withdrawal phenomenon when abruptly stopping many SSRIs (except fluoxetine)?
- Serotonin syndrome
- Discontinuation syndrome with dizziness, irritability, flu-like symptoms
- Immediate relapse into mania
- Acute hypertensive crisis
Correct Answer: Discontinuation syndrome with dizziness, irritability, flu-like symptoms
Q45. Which antidepressant is commonly used in elderly patients when avoiding anticholinergic effects is a priority?
- Amitriptyline
- Paroxetine
- Sertraline
- Imipramine
Correct Answer: Sertraline
Q46. For pharmacovigilance, which adverse effect related to SSRIs should pharmacists counsel patients to report promptly?
- New or worsening suicidal thoughts, agitation, or severe mood change
- Minor headaches resolving in hours
- Temporary mild dry mouth
- Reduced appetite only
Correct Answer: New or worsening suicidal thoughts, agitation, or severe mood change
Q47. Which antidepressant is most appropriate when a patient’s depression is accompanied by significant neuropathic pain?
- Fluoxetine
- Duloxetine
- Bupropion
- Phenelzine
Correct Answer: Duloxetine
Q48. Which pharmacologic property explains why fluoxetine has a longer duration of action and less discontinuation syndrome than paroxetine?
- Fluoxetine is a stronger CYP3A4 inducer
- Fluoxetine has an active metabolite (norfluoxetine) with a long half-life
- Fluoxetine is not lipophilic
- Fluoxetine is only renally excreted unchanged
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine has an active metabolite (norfluoxetine) with a long half-life
Q49. Which therapeutic option is evidence-based for seasonal affective disorder (SAD)?
- Daily light therapy (phototherapy)
- High-dose benzodiazepines
- Immediate MAOI therapy only
- Long-term opioid therapy
Correct Answer: Daily light therapy (phototherapy)
Q50. Which management step is recommended when a patient on an SSRI develops mild serotonin syndrome?
- Continue the SSRI and add MAOI
- Stop serotonergic agents, provide supportive care, consider cyproheptadine if needed
- Administer high-dose benzodiazepines only
- Initiate immediate ECT
Correct Answer: Stop serotonergic agents, provide supportive care, consider cyproheptadine if needed

I am a Registered Pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act, 1948, and the founder of PharmacyFreak.com. I hold a Bachelor of Pharmacy degree from Rungta College of Pharmaceutical Science and Research. With a strong academic foundation and practical knowledge, I am committed to providing accurate, easy-to-understand content to support pharmacy students and professionals. My aim is to make complex pharmaceutical concepts accessible and useful for real-world application.
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