Cultivation of viruses MCQs With Answer

Cultivation of viruses MCQs With Answer offers B.Pharm students a focused, keyword-rich overview of virus cultivation techniques, assays, and biosafety essentials. This guide covers cell culture systems, embryonated eggs, animal models, plaque assays, TCID50, viral titration, and practical considerations for antiviral testing and contamination control. Questions emphasize experimental design, interpretation of cytopathic effects, one-step and multi-step growth curves, multiplicity of infection (MOI), and advanced methods like organoids and baculovirus expression. Perfect for exam prep and laboratory competence, these MCQs strengthen understanding of virology practicals and quality control in pharmaceutical research. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which system is most commonly used for large-scale propagation of influenza viruses for vaccine production?

  • Vero cell culture
  • Primary human fibroblasts
  • Embryonated hen eggs
  • HeLa cell line

Correct Answer: Embryonated hen eggs

Q2. What does PFU stand for in viral quantification?

  • Particle Formation Units
  • Plaque Forming Units
  • Protein Functional Units
  • Pathogen Frequency Units

Correct Answer: Plaque Forming Units

Q3. Which assay measures the dilution of virus that infects 50% of cell cultures?

  • Hemagglutination assay
  • TCID50 assay
  • Pseudotype neutralization
  • ELISA

Correct Answer: TCID50 assay

Q4. Which cell line is commonly used to propagate poliovirus and other enteroviruses?

  • MDCK
  • Vero
  • HeLa
  • BHK-21

Correct Answer: HeLa

Q5. What is the primary advantage of using continuous cell lines over primary cells?

  • Higher physiological similarity to tissues
  • Unlimited lifespan and ease of maintenance
  • Lower risk of contamination
  • More ethical concerns

Correct Answer: Unlimited lifespan and ease of maintenance

Q6. Which method separates viruses based on buoyant density?

  • PCR amplification
  • Sucrose gradient centrifugation
  • Hemadsorption
  • Immunofluorescence

Correct Answer: Sucrose gradient centrifugation

Q7. Cytopathic effect (CPE) refers to:

  • Virus-induced visible changes in host cells
  • Formation of viral plaques on agar
  • Neutralization of virus by antibodies
  • Inactivation of complement proteins

Correct Answer: Virus-induced visible changes in host cells

Q8. One-step growth curve is used to study which feature of virus replication?

  • Multiple cycles of infection over days
  • Single synchronous replication cycle and eclipse phase
  • Host immune response kinetics
  • Viral mutation rates

Correct Answer: Single synchronous replication cycle and eclipse phase

Q9. Which of the following is a permissive cell line for rabies virus propagation?

  • MDCK cells
  • Neuroblastoma (N2a) cells
  • CHO cells
  • 293T cells

Correct Answer: Neuroblastoma (N2a) cells

Q10. Hemagglutination assay detects viruses by their ability to:

  • Cause cell lysis
  • Bind and agglutinate red blood cells
  • Generate plaques on agar
  • Induce fluorescence

Correct Answer: Bind and agglutinate red blood cells

Q11. What is multiplicity of infection (MOI)?

  • Number of plaques per mL
  • Ratio of infectious virions to target cells during infection
  • Time required for viral adsorption
  • Amount of antibody needed for neutralization

Correct Answer: Ratio of infectious virions to target cells during infection

Q12. Which biosafety level is typically required for handling poliovirus in laboratory culture?

  • BSL-1
  • BSL-2
  • BSL-3
  • BSL-4

Correct Answer: BSL-2

Q13. Which technique is used to quantify viral RNA in a sample?

  • Western blot
  • Real-time RT-PCR
  • Hemagglutination assay
  • Neutralization test

Correct Answer: Real-time RT-PCR

Q14. Which of the following enhances influenza virus infectivity in cell culture by cleaving HA?

  • Trypsin
  • Papain
  • DNase
  • Proteinase K

Correct Answer: Trypsin

Q15. Plaque purification is performed to:

  • Measure antibody titers
  • Isolate a clonal viral population
  • Lyse host cells for protein analysis
  • Determine viral genome sequence

Correct Answer: Isolate a clonal viral population

Q16. Syncytium formation is characteristic of infection by which type of virus?

  • Non-enveloped enteroviruses
  • Enveloped paramyxoviruses
  • DNA bacteriophages
  • Retrovirus integrases

Correct Answer: Enveloped paramyxoviruses

Q17. Which insect cell line is commonly used with baculovirus expression systems?

  • HeLa
  • Sf9
  • CHO
  • Vero

Correct Answer: Sf9

Q18. TCID50 differs from PFU because TCID50 measures:

  • Direct count of viral particles
  • Infectious dose causing cytopathic effect in 50% wells
  • Hemagglutinin units
  • Antibody neutralization strength

Correct Answer: Infectious dose causing cytopathic effect in 50% wells

Q19. Which medium supplement helps prevent fungal contamination in long-term cell culture?

  • Penicillin only
  • Streptomycin only
  • Amphotericin B (antifungal)
  • Trypsin

Correct Answer: Amphotericin B (antifungal)

Q20. Envelope viruses are generally more sensitive to which condition compared to non-enveloped viruses?

  • Detergents and organic solvents
  • UV radiation
  • High temperatures
  • Low pH in stomach

Correct Answer: Detergents and organic solvents

Q21. Which assay is used to measure neutralizing antibodies against a virus?

  • Plaque reduction neutralization test (PRNT)
  • Hemagglutination inhibition assay
  • Western blot
  • Direct fluorescent antibody staining

Correct Answer: Plaque reduction neutralization test (PRNT)

Q22. Which cell culture condition promotes viral adsorption to host cells?

  • Rapid shaking of culture
  • Centrifugal enhancement or spinoculation
  • Complete absence of serum
  • High antibiotic concentrations

Correct Answer: Centrifugal enhancement or spinoculation

Q23. The eclipse phase in a one-step growth curve is characterized by:

  • Peak extracellular virus titers
  • Loss of detectable infectious intracellular virions after entry
  • Initial increase in plaque numbers
  • Onset of cytopathic effect

Correct Answer: Loss of detectable infectious intracellular virions after entry

Q24. Which of the following is a continuous cell line derived from African green monkey kidney?

  • BHK-21
  • Vero
  • HEK293
  • MRC-5

Correct Answer: Vero

Q25. Reverse genetics systems in virology are primarily used to:

  • Purify viral particles
  • Generate infectious virus from cloned cDNA
  • Measure antibody titers
  • Detect viral RNA by PCR

Correct Answer: Generate infectious virus from cloned cDNA

Q26. Use of fetal bovine serum (FBS) in media primarily provides:

  • Antiviral agents
  • Growth factors and attachment factors
  • Selective antibiotics
  • Viral neutralizing antibodies

Correct Answer: Growth factors and attachment factors

Q27. In plaque assays, agar overlay serves to:

  • Provide nutrients for virus
  • Restrict viral spread to neighboring cells to form plaques
  • Enhance antibody binding
  • Stain infected cells

Correct Answer: Restrict viral spread to neighboring cells to form plaques

Q28. Which parameter is essential when choosing a cell line for viral isolation?

  • Cost of culture media alone
  • Permissiveness and susceptibility of the cell to the virus
  • Origin of the researcher
  • Color of the culture flask

Correct Answer: Permissiveness and susceptibility of the cell to the virus

Q29. Focus forming assays differ from plaque assays by detecting:

  • Only lytic viruses
  • Infected cell foci using immunostaining rather than visible plaques
  • Viral RNA copies
  • Hemagglutination units

Correct Answer: Infected cell foci using immunostaining rather than visible plaques

Q30. Which step immediately follows viral adsorption in the replication cycle?

  • Assembly of virions
  • Penetration and entry into the host cell
  • Release by budding
  • Genome integration into host DNA

Correct Answer: Penetration and entry into the host cell

Q31. Which assay is rapid and measures total viral particles by light scattering, not infectivity?

  • Electron microscopy particle count
  • Plaque assay
  • TCID50
  • Hemagglutination inhibition

Correct Answer: Electron microscopy particle count

Q32. An advantage of organoid cultures for virus study is:

  • Lower cost than cell lines
  • Better mimicry of in vivo tissue architecture and function
  • No need for biosafety precautions
  • Unlimited reproducibility without variability

Correct Answer: Better mimicry of in vivo tissue architecture and function

Q33. Which reagent is commonly used to detach adherent mammalian cells for subculture?

  • Formaldehyde
  • Trypsin-EDTA
  • Amphotericin B
  • Polyethylene glycol

Correct Answer: Trypsin-EDTA

Q34. Viral adsorption efficiency can be increased by lowering which temperature during inoculation?

  • 4°C to promote endocytosis
  • Room temperature to freeze cells
  • 37°C for rapid internalization, often shortened to favor binding at 4°C
  • 100°C to denature surface proteins

Correct Answer: 37°C for rapid internalization, often shortened to favor binding at 4°C

Q35. Which of the following indicates contamination by mycoplasma in cell cultures?

  • Visible fungal hyphae under microscope
  • Slow cell growth with altered morphology and failure to show turbidity
  • Immediate cell lysis within minutes
  • Formation of bacterial colonies on agar only

Correct Answer: Slow cell growth with altered morphology and failure to show turbidity

Q36. Neutral red uptake assay in virus research is used to assess:

  • Viral genome sequences
  • Cell viability and cytotoxicity post-infection
  • Hemagglutination titers
  • Antibody specificity

Correct Answer: Cell viability and cytotoxicity post-infection

Q37. Which viral quantification uses antibodies to detect infected cells forming foci?

  • Plaque assay
  • Focus forming assay (immunostaining)
  • TCID50 only
  • Electron microscopy

Correct Answer: Focus forming assay (immunostaining)

Q38. Which practice reduces risk of cross-contamination between viral stocks?

  • Using same pipette tips for all samples
  • Aliquoting stocks and working in biosafety cabinet with sterile technique
  • Keeping all stocks at room temperature
  • Sharing cell culture flasks between viruses

Correct Answer: Aliquoting stocks and working in biosafety cabinet with sterile technique

Q39. Which of these viruses is typically grown in MDCK cell lines for research and vaccine assays?

  • Hepatitis B virus
  • Influenza virus
  • HIV
  • Poliovirus

Correct Answer: Influenza virus

Q40. Gradient ultracentrifugation separates viral particles primarily by:

  • Molecular weight of nucleic acids
  • Buoyant density of particles
  • Antigenic properties
  • Color of viral capsid

Correct Answer: Buoyant density of particles

Q41. Which cell culture contaminant is smallest and lacks a cell wall, often detected by PCR?

  • Bacteria with spores
  • Fungi
  • Mycoplasma
  • Protozoa

Correct Answer: Mycoplasma

Q42. In antiviral drug testing, EC50 refers to:

  • Concentration causing 50% cell death
  • Concentration of drug that reduces viral replication by 50%
  • 50% effective plasma concentration in humans
  • Enzymatic cleavage at 50°C

Correct Answer: Concentration of drug that reduces viral replication by 50%

Q43. What is multiplicity reactivation in virology?

  • Reactivation of latent viruses by heat
  • Repair and recombination between damaged viral genomes co-infecting a cell
  • Measurement of MOI by plaque assay
  • Activation of complement pathways

Correct Answer: Repair and recombination between damaged viral genomes co-infecting a cell

Q44. Which assay is most appropriate to determine infectivity loss after heat inactivation?

  • Plaque assay to measure remaining infectious units
  • Western blot for capsid proteins
  • qPCR to measure genome copies only
  • Hemagglutination unit measurement

Correct Answer: Plaque assay to measure remaining infectious units

Q45. Which viral property is best assessed by single-step versus multi-step growth experiments?

  • Genomic sequence variation
  • Replication kinetics at high versus low MOI
  • Antibody binding affinity
  • Capsid thermal stability

Correct Answer: Replication kinetics at high versus low MOI

Q46. Which cell line is frequently used for production of recombinant proteins and viral vectors and is of human embryonic kidney origin?

  • CHO
  • HEK293
  • Vero
  • MDCK

Correct Answer: HEK293

Q47. Which detection method identifies viral proteins in infected cells using labeled antibodies?

  • RT-PCR
  • Immunofluorescence assay (IFA)
  • Hemagglutination assay
  • Plaque assay

Correct Answer: Immunofluorescence assay (IFA)

Q48. During plaque assay, which overlay alternative allows diffusion of neutralizing antibodies for certain assays?

  • Hard plastic overlay
  • Agarose or methylcellulose overlay
  • Oil overlay
  • Solid glass overlay

Correct Answer: Agarose or methylcellulose overlay

Q49. Which factor most influences the host range of a virus in culture?

  • Presence of suitable cell surface receptors and intracellular factors
  • Color of growth medium
  • Brand of incubator
  • Type of plasticware used only

Correct Answer: Presence of suitable cell surface receptors and intracellular factors

Q50. Reporter viruses engineered to express GFP are useful because they:

  • Require special electron microscopy
  • Allow real-time visualization of infection and quantification without staining
  • Are always non-infectious
  • Eliminate the need for biosafety containment

Correct Answer: Allow real-time visualization of infection and quantification without staining

Leave a Comment