Clinical Patient Care | FREE CCMA Practice Test | Mix Set -1

1) At patient intake, the safest way to verify identity before care is to use:

2) A positive orthostatic finding is MOST consistent with which change from supine to standing (after 1–3 minutes)?

3) Which SpO₂ value requires urgent notification and assessment in most adults at rest?

4) Convert 101.3 °F to Celsius (°C):

5) BMI for a 68 kg adult who is 1.70 m tall is approximately:

6) Which anthropometric measurement is routine to obtain and plot up to 36 months of age?

7) In women, which waist circumference indicates increased cardiometabolic risk?

8) Selecting the correct adult BP cuff: the bladder should generally encircle about ______ of the arm and width be about ______ of its circumference.

9) Best pulse measurement for an infant is the:

10) The MOST appropriate pain scale for a typical 4-year-old is the:

11) The correct angle for an intradermal injection (e.g., PPD) is approximately:

12) A typical subcutaneous insulin injection for an average adult is given at:

13) The preferred IM site for a 2 mL injection in a healthy adult is usually the:

14) Correct technique for adult ear drops is to pull the pinna:

15) Eye drop administration includes which BEST practice?

16) Usual time for removal of nonabsorbable facial sutures is about:

17) Which sterile field rule is correct?

18) When opening a sterile pack on a mayo stand, the FIRST flap should be opened:

19) Adding sterile solution to a sterile basin on the field should be done by holding the bottle about:

20) First-aid for anterior epistaxis typically includes which step?

21) For suspected or confirmed C. difficile, the BEST hand hygiene method after glove removal is:

22) Correct sequence for donning PPE (most settings) is:

23) Correct sequence for doffing PPE to minimize contamination is MOST often:

24) Best practice for cleaning a large blood spill on a nonporous surface is to use:

25) Which is the MOST accurate sharps safety statement?

26) FIRST response to a needlestick injury is to:

27) Which process kills all microorganisms, including bacterial spores, on critical instruments?

28) A clean-catch midstream urine specimen for culture requires the patient to first clean, then:

29) Proper specimen labeling includes which step?

30) Which test is CLIA-waived in many clinics?

31) Quality control for POCT should be performed:

32) Spirometry coaching for FVC/FEV₁ requires the patient to:

33) On a Snellen chart, 20/40 vision means the patient can see at 20 ft what a person with normal vision can see at:

34) Correct order of draw for venipuncture is:

35) The tourniquet should be applied for no longer than approximately:

36) The most common needle size for routine adult venipuncture is:

37) For capillary specimens, the correct order of draw is generally to collect:

38) The light blue-top tube used for coagulation testing contains which additive?

39) After drawing a lavender-top tube, it should be inverted gently approximately:

40) Which action MOST likely causes hemolysis in a venous blood sample?

41) During a draw the patient becomes pale and says they feel faint. The CCMA should FIRST:

42) Proper placement of the V1 precordial electrode is at the:

43) The V4 electrode is placed at the:

44) The V5 electrode is placed at the:

45) Standard 12-lead ECG settings for gain and paper speed are typically:

46) On ECG paper, the time represented by one small box (1 mm) at 25 mm/s is:

47) Somatic tremor artifact on ECG is MOST often caused by:

48) Which ECG finding represents a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate activation of emergency protocols?

49) On a standard ECG, which limb electrode serves as the ground (reference) to reduce interference?

50) While performing a 12-lead ECG, the CCMA notices clear ST-segment elevation. The MOST appropriate action is to: