Bioassay of histamine MCQs With Answer

Introduction: Bioassay of histamine is a fundamental pharmacology topic for B.Pharm students, covering histamine bioassay principles, isolated tissue preparations, receptor pharmacology (H1, H2), and quantitative dose-response analysis. This introduction highlights key concepts such as guinea pig ileum and rabbit aorta assays, EC50/ED50 determination, potency versus efficacy, cumulative versus non‑cumulative dosing, antagonists, and statistical evaluation like parallel line assay and log dose‑response plots. Understanding histamine bioassays helps students design experiments, interpret agonist/antagonist effects, recognize tachyphylaxis, and ensure assay validity. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. What is the primary purpose of performing a bioassay of histamine?

  • To determine the chemical purity of histamine
  • To quantify the biological potency and activity of histamine preparations
  • To measure histamine concentration in plasma by chromatography
  • To evaluate the immunogenicity of histamine

Correct Answer: To quantify the biological potency and activity of histamine preparations

Q2. Which isolated tissue is classically used to assess H1 receptor‑mediated contractile response to histamine?

  • Rabbit gastric fundus
  • Guinea pig ileum
  • Rat atrium
  • Mouse diaphragm

Correct Answer: Guinea pig ileum

Q3. In a histamine bioassay, what does EC50 represent?

  • The maximum response achievable by histamine
  • The concentration producing 50% of the maximal response
  • The concentration that kills 50% of tissue samples
  • The time required to reach half the maximal effect

Correct Answer: The concentration producing 50% of the maximal response

Q4. Which receptor subtype predominantly mediates gastric acid secretion stimulated by histamine?

  • H1 receptor
  • H2 receptor
  • H3 receptor
  • H4 receptor

Correct Answer: H2 receptor

Q5. What is the main advantage of using cumulative dosing in a histamine bioassay?

  • It prevents receptor desensitization entirely
  • It allows generation of a continuous concentration–response curve from a single tissue
  • It shortens the assay time by using one high dose only
  • It eliminates the need for a standard preparation

Correct Answer: It allows generation of a continuous concentration–response curve from a single tissue

Q6. In a parallel line bioassay for histamine, what is assessed by testing lines for parallelism?

  • Whether the standard and test preparations have equal maximal responses
  • Whether the potency ratio between standard and test is constant across doses
  • Whether the tissue viability remains constant
  • Whether antagonists are present in the assay

Correct Answer: Whether the potency ratio between standard and test is constant across doses

Q7. Which of the following best describes a graded (continuous) bioassay outcome?

  • Number of animals responding versus not responding
  • Magnitude of response varying with concentration in the same tissue
  • Binary presence or absence of contraction
  • Time to first contraction event

Correct Answer: Magnitude of response varying with concentration in the same tissue

Q8. Which enzyme is primarily responsible for intracellular histamine metabolism in many tissues?

  • Monoamine oxidase (MAO)
  • Diamine oxidase (DAO)
  • Histamine N‑methyltransferase (HNMT)
  • Catechol‑O‑methyltransferase (COMT)

Correct Answer: Histamine N‑methyltransferase (HNMT)

Q9. Tachyphylaxis in repeated histamine applications refers to:

  • A progressive increase in response with repeated dosing
  • A sudden loss of response upon repeated or continuous stimulation
  • Irreversible receptor activation by histamine
  • Enhanced tissue sensitivity after washout

Correct Answer: A sudden loss of response upon repeated or continuous stimulation

Q10. When plotting a log dose–response curve for histamine, what is the typical shape for a full agonist on isolated tissue?

  • Sigmoidal (S‑shaped)
  • Hyperbolic with no plateau
  • Linear increasing without saturation
  • U‑shaped dose dependence

Correct Answer: Sigmoidal (S‑shaped)

Q11. What does a parallel rightward shift of the histamine dose–response curve in presence of an antagonist indicate?

  • Noncompetitive antagonism
  • Competitive reversible antagonism
  • Irreversible agonist action
  • Increased maximal efficacy of histamine

Correct Answer: Competitive reversible antagonism

Q12. Which tissue preparation is often used to study histamine‑induced vasoconstriction or vasodilation?

  • Guinea pig ileum
  • Isolated rabbit aorta
  • Mouse urinary bladder
  • Rat diaphragm

Correct Answer: Isolated rabbit aorta

Q13. In bioassay terminology, potency and efficacy are distinct. Which statement is correct?

  • Potency is the maximal effect; efficacy is the concentration needed
  • Potency relates to the dose producing a defined effect; efficacy is the maximal response achievable
  • Potency and efficacy mean the same in graded assays
  • Potency only applies to antagonists, efficacy only to agonists

Correct Answer: Potency relates to the dose producing a defined effect; efficacy is the maximal response achievable

Q14. Which statistical method is commonly used to analyze parallelism in potency assays of histamine?

  • Student’s t‑test for paired samples
  • ANOVA without post hoc tests
  • Linear regression and analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)
  • Chi‑square test

Correct Answer: Linear regression and analysis of covariance (ANCOVA)

Q15. A partial agonist in a histamine bioassay will:

  • Produce greater maximal response than a full agonist
  • Produce a lower maximal response than a full agonist even at high concentrations
  • Always act as a pure antagonist
  • Have no measurable effect on isolated tissues

Correct Answer: Produce a lower maximal response than a full agonist even at high concentrations

Q16. Which factor is critical to control to reduce variability in isolated tissue histamine assays?

  • Ambient light intensity
  • Temperature, ionic composition, and tissue viability
  • Color of the solution
  • Time of day only

Correct Answer: Temperature, ionic composition, and tissue viability

Q17. When determining histamine potency, why is a standard reference preparation used?

  • To avoid the need for multiple tissue baths
  • To provide a basis for comparing unknown samples and calculating relative potency
  • To sterilize the test sample
  • To neutralize histamine activity

Correct Answer: To provide a basis for comparing unknown samples and calculating relative potency

Q18. Which is an example of a noncompetitive antagonist effect in a histamine bioassay?

  • Rightward shift of the curve with unchanged Emax
  • Decrease in maximal response (Emax) irrespective of dose
  • Complete reversal of antagonist effect by increasing agonist concentration
  • No change in dose‑response curve

Correct Answer: Decrease in maximal response (Emax) irrespective of dose

Q19. In a bioassay, what is the significance of determining ED50 instead of EC50?

  • ED50 refers to effective dose in vivo producing a defined effect in 50% of subjects, while EC50 is concentration in vitro producing 50% of maximal response
  • ED50 measures enzyme activity, EC50 measures cell viability
  • ED50 is used only for antagonists
  • There is no difference between ED50 and EC50

Correct Answer: ED50 refers to effective dose in vivo producing a defined effect in 50% of subjects, while EC50 is concentration in vitro producing 50% of maximal response

Q20. Which experimental practice helps distinguish receptor‑mediated histamine responses from nonspecific tissue effects?

  • Using very high concentrations of histamine only
  • Applying selective receptor antagonists and observing shifts or blockade
  • Changing the tissue frequently without controls
  • Measuring pH only

Correct Answer: Applying selective receptor antagonists and observing shifts or blockade

Q21. A Schild plot in antagonist studies yields an intercept that helps determine:

  • The intrinsic activity of the antagonist
  • The equilibrium dissociation constant (Kb) of a competitive antagonist
  • The time to onset of antagonist action
  • The solvent composition

Correct Answer: The equilibrium dissociation constant (Kb) of a competitive antagonist

Q22. Which histamine receptor is primarily involved in modulating neurotransmitter release in the brain?

  • H1 receptor
  • H2 receptor
  • H3 receptor
  • H4 receptor

Correct Answer: H3 receptor

Q23. During an isolated tissue bioassay, an unexpected gradual decline in maximal responses across experiments most likely indicates:

  • Improved tissue sensitivity
  • Tachyphylaxis or loss of tissue viability
  • Increased agonist potency
  • Presence of excessive antagonist only

Correct Answer: Tachyphylaxis or loss of tissue viability

Q24. Which preparation would be least appropriate for studying histamine‑induced smooth muscle contraction mediated by H1 receptors?

  • Guinea pig ileum
  • Rabbit jejunum
  • Isolated rabbit aorta (endothelium intact)
  • Mouse skeletal muscle diaphragm

Correct Answer: Mouse skeletal muscle diaphragm

Q25. In bioassay validation, which parameter assesses the repeatability of results under the same conditions?

  • Specificity
  • Precision
  • Accuracy
  • Robustness

Correct Answer: Precision

Q26. Which of the following statements about histamine salts used in assays is correct?

  • Histamine free base is preferred because it is water‑soluble
  • Histamine dihydrochloride is commonly used because it is stable and water‑soluble
  • Only organic solvents can dissolve histamine salts
  • Salt form has no effect on assay preparations

Correct Answer: Histamine dihydrochloride is commonly used because it is stable and water‑soluble

Q27. In designing a histamine bioassay to compare two samples, which control is essential?

  • An unrelated drug control with no histamine activity
  • A standard histamine reference curve run in parallel with the test sample
  • An assay with no tissue present
  • A temperature control at 0°C

Correct Answer: A standard histamine reference curve run in parallel with the test sample

Q28. What is the likely effect of irreversible H1 receptor antagonist on a histamine concentration–response curve?

  • Parallel rightward shift with no change in Emax
  • Reduction in Emax and possible nonparallelism
  • Complete enhancement of histamine response
  • No effect at any concentration

Correct Answer: Reduction in Emax and possible nonparallelism

Q29. Which factor could artificially increase apparent potency of histamine in an isolated tissue assay?

  • Using a damaged tissue with reduced responsiveness
  • Contamination with a histamine‑degrading enzyme
  • Presence of a positive allosteric modulator that enhances receptor response
  • Incorrectly low incubation temperature

Correct Answer: Presence of a positive allosteric modulator that enhances receptor response

Q30. For a robust histamine bioassay report, which elements should be included?

  • Only the final potency value without experimental details
  • Complete methodology, tissue source, temperature, concentration–response data, and statistical analysis
  • Only the type of buffer used
  • Only the name of the lab performing the assay

Correct Answer: Complete methodology, tissue source, temperature, concentration–response data, and statistical analysis

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