Antipsychotics MCQs With Answer

Antipsychotics MCQs With Answer provides B. Pharm students a focused review of antipsychotic pharmacology, clinical uses, mechanisms, adverse effects, and therapeutic monitoring. This collection emphasizes key concepts such as typical versus atypical agents, D2 receptor blockade, 5-HT2A interactions, extrapyramidal symptoms, metabolic syndrome, clozapine monitoring, depot formulations, and relevant CYP-mediated interactions. Designed for classroom revision and exam preparation, the questions challenge understanding of pharmacokinetics, receptor profiles, side-effect management, and drug selection for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and acute agitation. Clear explanations reinforce learning and clinical relevance, helping students apply pharmacological principles to real-world patient care.
Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which mechanism best explains the primary antipsychotic effect of most typical antipsychotics?

  • Partial agonism at 5-HT1A receptors
  • Antagonism of dopamine D2 receptors
  • Agonism of GABA-A receptors
  • Inhibition of NMDA receptors

Correct Answer: Antagonism of dopamine D2 receptors

Q2. Which atypical antipsychotic is associated with a high risk of agranulocytosis requiring regular WBC monitoring?

  • Risperidone
  • Olanzapine
  • Clozapine
  • Haloperidol

Correct Answer: Clozapine

Q3. Which adverse effect is most characteristically associated with long-term D2 blockade in the nigrostriatal pathway?

  • Weight gain
  • Tardive dyskinesia
  • Neutropenia
  • Hypotension

Correct Answer: Tardive dyskinesia

Q4. Aripiprazole differs from many antipsychotics because it acts primarily as a:

  • Full dopamine D2 antagonist
  • Partial dopamine D2 agonist
  • 5-HT3 receptor antagonist
  • Muscarinic receptor agonist

Correct Answer: Partial dopamine D2 agonist

Q5. Which antipsychotic has the highest propensity for causing metabolic syndrome (weight gain, hyperglycaemia, dyslipidaemia)?

  • Ziprasidone
  • Haloperidol
  • Olanzapine
  • Fluphenazine

Correct Answer: Olanzapine

Q6. Which receptor blockade is primarily responsible for antipsychotic-induced orthostatic hypotension?

  • Histamine H1 receptor blockade
  • Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blockade
  • Muscarinic M2 receptor blockade
  • Dopamine D2 receptor blockade

Correct Answer: Alpha-1 adrenergic receptor blockade

Q7. Which antipsychotic is most strongly associated with QT interval prolongation?

  • Risperidone
  • Ziprasidone
  • Olanzapine
  • Haloperidol (oral)

Correct Answer: Ziprasidone

Q8. Which adverse syndrome presents with fever, muscle rigidity, autonomic instability, and elevated CK and is a rare emergency of antipsychotic therapy?

  • Serotonin syndrome
  • Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
  • Parkinsonism
  • Tardive dyskinesia

Correct Answer: Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Q9. Which enzyme is most important in the hepatic metabolism of many antipsychotics including risperidone and aripiprazole?

  • CYP1A2
  • CYP3A4
  • CYP2D6
  • MAO-A

Correct Answer: CYP2D6

Q10. Which formulation is used to improve adherence by providing sustained antipsychotic release over weeks?

  • Immediate-release oral tablets
  • Transdermal patch
  • Depot intramuscular injection
  • Inhaled aerosol

Correct Answer: Depot intramuscular injection

Q11. Which anticholinergic drug is commonly used to treat acute extrapyramidal symptoms caused by antipsychotics?

  • Propranolol
  • Biperiden
  • Metoclopramide
  • Flumazenil

Correct Answer: Biperiden

Q12. Which typical antipsychotic is most likely to cause significant anticholinergic effects and sedation?

  • Chlorpromazine
  • Haloperidol
  • Fluphenazine
  • Perphenazine

Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine

Q13. Which monitoring parameter is mandatory when initiating clozapine therapy?

  • Lipid profile monthly
  • White blood cell count and ANC regularly
  • Fasting glucose weekly
  • ECG every day

Correct Answer: White blood cell count and ANC regularly

Q14. Which antipsychotic is classified as a benzisoxazole derivative and commonly causes hyperprolactinaemia?

  • Risperidone
  • Quetiapine
  • Olanzapine
  • Aripiprazole

Correct Answer: Risperidone

Q15. Which symptom is most characteristic of acute dystonia as an extrapyramidal side effect?

  • Bradykinesia and shuffling gait
  • Sudden sustained muscle contractions and abnormal postures
  • Involuntary choreiform movements of face
  • Slow tremor at rest

Correct Answer: Sudden sustained muscle contractions and abnormal postures

Q16. Which property of atypical antipsychotics contributes to lower risk of extrapyramidal symptoms compared to typical agents?

  • Higher affinity for muscarinic receptors
  • Preferential 5-HT2A antagonism with transient D2 blockade
  • Stronger D2 receptor blockade with irreversible binding
  • Selective H1 agonism

Correct Answer: Preferential 5-HT2A antagonism with transient D2 blockade

Q17. Which antipsychotic is known for causing sedation through potent H1 histamine receptor antagonism?

  • Ziprasidone
  • Quetiapine
  • Haloperidol
  • Aripiprazole

Correct Answer: Quetiapine

Q18. Which antipsychotic has a mechanism that includes inhibition of dopamine reuptake transporters as a primary action?

  • Risperidone
  • Clozapine
  • No major antipsychotic acts primarily by inhibiting dopamine reuptake
  • Haloperidol

Correct Answer: No major antipsychotic acts primarily by inhibiting dopamine reuptake

Q19. Which interaction increases plasma levels of antipsychotics metabolized by CYP3A4?

  • Co-administration with rifampicin
  • Co-administration with carbamazepine
  • Co-administration with ketoconazole
  • Co-administration with phenytoin

Correct Answer: Co-administration with ketoconazole

Q20. Which clinical use beyond schizophrenia is commonly approved for many antipsychotics?

  • Treatment of bacterial infections
  • Bipolar mania and acute agitation
  • Insulin replacement therapy
  • Anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation

Correct Answer: Bipolar mania and acute agitation

Q21. Which antipsychotic is least likely to increase prolactin levels due to its partial agonist activity?

  • Risperidone
  • Haloperidol
  • Aripiprazole
  • Paliperidone

Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

Q22. A patient on antipsychotic therapy develops a resting tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity. These features most closely resemble:

  • Akathisia
  • Parkinsonism
  • Tardive dyskinesia
  • Dystonia

Correct Answer: Parkinsonism

Q23. Which laboratory test should be monitored periodically for patients on long-term olanzapine therapy?

  • Serum creatine kinase weekly
  • Lipid profile and fasting blood glucose
  • Complete blood count monthly for agranulocytosis
  • Serum lithium levels

Correct Answer: Lipid profile and fasting blood glucose

Q24. Which antipsychotic is commonly used in treatment-resistant schizophrenia after other agents fail?

  • Haloperidol
  • Clozapine
  • Ziprasidone
  • Risperidone

Correct Answer: Clozapine

Q25. What is the principal pharmacodynamic action of risperidone contributing to antipsychotic efficacy?

  • Muscarinic M3 receptor activation
  • Dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A receptor antagonism
  • GABA reuptake inhibition
  • NMDA receptor potentiation

Correct Answer: Dopamine D2 and serotonin 5-HT2A receptor antagonism

Q26. Which adverse effect is most associated with high-potency typical antipsychotics like haloperidol?

  • Severe anticholinergic effects
  • Pronounced extrapyramidal symptoms
  • Marked orthostatic hypotension
  • Severe weight gain

Correct Answer: Pronounced extrapyramidal symptoms

Q27. Which statement about depot antipsychotic preparations is correct?

  • They are only available for atypical antipsychotics
  • They provide steady plasma levels and improve adherence
  • They require daily administration
  • They are rapidly cleared within hours

Correct Answer: They provide steady plasma levels and improve adherence

Q28. Which antipsychotic has significant anticholinergic activity and may worsen glaucoma or urinary retention?

  • Chlorpromazine
  • Risperidone
  • Haloperidol
  • Ziprasidone

Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine

Q29. Which clinical sign suggests akathisia as an antipsychotic adverse effect?

  • Subjective inner restlessness and inability to sit still
  • Involuntary rhythmic movements of the tongue
  • Fever and muscle stiffness
  • Gradual onset of involuntary facial movements after years

Correct Answer: Subjective inner restlessness and inability to sit still

Q30. Which medication is recommended to manage severe neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

  • Metoclopramide
  • Dantrolene
  • Haloperidol
  • Prochlorperazine

Correct Answer: Dantrolene

Leave a Comment