Abbreviated New Drug Application (ANDA) process MCQs With Answer

The Abbreviated New Drug Application (ANDA) process is a core regulatory pathway for generic drug approval. This introduction explains key concepts B. Pharm students must know: ANDA submission under 505(j), bioequivalence (AUC/Cmax), Reference Listed Drug (RLD), FDA Orange Book, Paragraph IV patent challenges, 180-day exclusivity, BCS-based biowaivers, Drug Master Files (DMFs), cGMP, and labeling requirements. Understanding regulatory strategy, study design, CMC comparability (Q1/Q2/Q3), and post-approval changes prepares students for roles in quality, regulatory affairs, and generic development. Clear grasp of these topics strengthens ability to analyze ANDA dossiers and anticipate regulatory hurdles. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. What does ANDA stand for?

  • Abbreviated New Drug Application
  • Active New Drug Application
  • Abbreviated New Drug Approval
  • Alternate New Drug Application

Correct Answer: Abbreviated New Drug Application

Q2. Under which statutory section of the FD&C Act is an ANDA submitted?

  • 505(b)(1)
  • 505(b)(2)
  • 505(j)
  • 351(k)

Correct Answer: 505(j)

Q3. What is the primary objective of an ANDA dossier?

  • Demonstrate new clinical efficacy
  • Show bioequivalence to the Reference Listed Drug (RLD)
  • Introduce a novel active ingredient
  • Request exclusive marketing rights

Correct Answer: Show bioequivalence to the Reference Listed Drug (RLD)

Q4. The Reference Listed Drug (RLD) is defined as:

  • The innovator product to which a generic is compared
  • Any over-the-counter medication
  • A drug master file containing API information
  • An investigational new drug

Correct Answer: The innovator product to which a generic is compared

Q5. Which FDA publication lists approved drug products and therapeutic equivalence codes for ANDAs?

  • Purple Book
  • Orange Book
  • Green Book
  • Blue Book

Correct Answer: Orange Book

Q6. A Paragraph IV certification in an ANDA asserts that:

  • The applicant will not market until patent expiry
  • The patent is invalid or will not be infringed by the generic
  • The applicant will pay royalties to the patent holder
  • There are no patents listed for the RLD

Correct Answer: The patent is invalid or will not be infringed by the generic

Q7. Which study type is most commonly used to demonstrate bioequivalence for systemic immediate-release products?

  • Randomized controlled clinical efficacy trial
  • Pharmacokinetic BE study measuring AUC and Cmax
  • Long-term toxicity study in animals
  • Post-marketing surveillance only

Correct Answer: Pharmacokinetic BE study measuring AUC and Cmax

Q8. What regulatory incentive can a first successful Paragraph IV ANDA applicant receive?

  • Five years of exclusivity
  • 180-day generic exclusivity
  • Automatic approval of all strengths
  • Priority review voucher

Correct Answer: 180-day generic exclusivity

Q9. What is a BCS-based biowaiver?

  • An exemption from submitting any CMC data
  • An approval pathway allowing waiver of in vivo BE for certain BCS classes
  • A requirement for additional clinical trials
  • A type of patent certification

Correct Answer: An approval pathway allowing waiver of in vivo BE for certain BCS classes

Q10. BCS Class I drugs are characterized by:

  • Low solubility and low permeability
  • High solubility and high permeability
  • High solubility and low permeability
  • Low solubility and high permeability

Correct Answer: High solubility and high permeability

Q11. In the Orange Book, an “AB” therapeutic equivalence code indicates:

  • Not therapeutically equivalent
  • Therapeutically equivalent and substitutable for the RLD
  • Generic is bioinequivalent
  • Product is investigational only

Correct Answer: Therapeutically equivalent and substitutable for the RLD

Q12. Why is the RLD important in dissolution testing for ANDAs?

  • It provides the target dissolution profile for comparative testing
  • The RLD supplies the active ingredient to the generic maker
  • RLD testing replaces the need for stability studies
  • The RLD determines the applicant’s user fees

Correct Answer: It provides the target dissolution profile for comparative testing

Q13. Which supporting document can be referenced in an ANDA to protect proprietary CMC information?

  • Investigational New Drug (IND)
  • Drug Master File (DMF)
  • New Drug Application (NDA)
  • Biologics License Application (BLA)

Correct Answer: Drug Master File (DMF)

Q14. Which element is generally NOT required to be repeated in an ANDA compared to the RLD?

  • Basic chemistry, manufacturing and controls (CMC)
  • Clinical efficacy trials already performed for the RLD
  • Labeling that matches the RLD
  • Bioequivalence data (unless waived)

Correct Answer: Clinical efficacy trials already performed for the RLD

Q15. If FDA finds an ANDA incomplete during initial review, it may issue which action?

  • Approval-without-review
  • Refuse to Receive/Refuse to File
  • Immediate approval pending inspection
  • Mandatory clinical trial order

Correct Answer: Refuse to Receive/Refuse to File

Q16. Adherence to current Good Manufacturing Practices (cGMP) in ANDA production primarily ensures:

  • Lower development costs
  • Consistent product quality, safety, and purity
  • Patent protection
  • Faster clinical trial enrollment

Correct Answer: Consistent product quality, safety, and purity

Q17. The electronic format FDA uses for approved drug labeling is called:

  • eCTD
  • Structured Product Labeling (SPL)
  • PDF Labeling Only
  • Labeling Master File (LMF)

Correct Answer: Structured Product Labeling (SPL)

Q18. Typical bioequivalence acceptance criteria for the 90% confidence interval of the geometric mean ratio (GMR) is:

  • 70–130%
  • 75–133%
  • 80–125%
  • 85–115%

Correct Answer: 80–125%

Q19. A major formulation change in an approved ANDA usually requires submission as:

  • Annual report only
  • Prior Approval Supplement (PAS)
  • Changes Being Effected (CBE-0)
  • No submission is needed

Correct Answer: Prior Approval Supplement (PAS)

Q20. Which exclusivity is typically granted to new chemical entities (NCEs) and is not an ANDA incentive?

  • 180-day generic exclusivity
  • Five-year NCE exclusivity
  • Orphan drug exclusivity for generics
  • ANDA administrative exclusivity

Correct Answer: Five-year NCE exclusivity

Q21. Which guideline designation refers to qualitative (Q1) sameness of inactive ingredients?

  • Q1 — qualitative sameness
  • Q2 — dissolution similarity
  • Q3 — therapeutic interchangeability
  • Q4 — bioanalytical method validation

Correct Answer: Q1 — qualitative sameness

Q22. If the RLD was withdrawn from the market for safety reasons, what is the typical FDA position on approving ANDAs referencing it?

  • ANDA approval proceeds normally
  • ANDA approval is usually not permitted for an RLD withdrawn for safety reasons
  • ANDA applicants must submit longer clinical trials only
  • FDA automatically assigns AB equivalence

Correct Answer: ANDA approval is usually not permitted for an RLD withdrawn for safety reasons

Q23. Which Orange Book TE code generally indicates that a generic product is therapeutically equivalent to the RLD and can be substituted?

  • AN
  • AA
  • AB
  • BX

Correct Answer: AB

Q24. Who conducts facility inspections for ANDA manufacturing compliance?

  • Local hospitals
  • FDA inspectors (Office of Regulatory Affairs)
  • Patent and Trademark Office inspectors
  • Independent clinical research organizations only

Correct Answer: FDA inspectors (Office of Regulatory Affairs)

Q25. Which formulation difference between a generic and RLD typically does NOT require new clinical studies?

  • Change in active moiety
  • Different API salt form
  • Different tablet color or shape
  • Significant change in release mechanism

Correct Answer: Different tablet color or shape

Q26. Which FDA center publishes guidances and reviews bioequivalence data for ANDAs?

  • CBER
  • CDER (Center for Drug Evaluation and Research)
  • CBP
  • CTEP

Correct Answer: CDER (Center for Drug Evaluation and Research)

Q27. A fed-state bioequivalence study is generally required when:

  • The drug has no documented food effect
  • The RLD labeling indicates a significant food effect or the drug is highly lipophilic
  • The applicant prefers shorter trials
  • BCS Class I biowaiver is used

Correct Answer: The RLD labeling indicates a significant food effect or the drug is highly lipophilic

Q28. What does a Paragraph III certification state in an ANDA?

  • Patent is invalid
  • Applicant will not market the product until patent expiry
  • Patent information is unknown
  • Applicant will immediately challenge the patent in court

Correct Answer: Applicant will not market the product until patent expiry

Q29. Which user-fee program funds FDA review of ANDAs?

  • PDUFA
  • GDUFA (Generic Drug User Fee Amendments)
  • BLA Fees
  • Orphan Drug Program fees

Correct Answer: GDUFA (Generic Drug User Fee Amendments)

Q30. Which product category is generally NOT eligible for approval via the ANDA pathway?

  • Conventional small-molecule oral tablets
  • Biological products licensed under the Public Health Service Act (351)
  • Topical generics with Q3 sameness demonstrated
  • Oral solutions that match RLD composition

Correct Answer: Biological products licensed under the Public Health Service Act (351)

Author

  • G S Sachin
    : Author

    G S Sachin is a Registered Pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act, 1948, and the founder of PharmacyFreak.com. He holds a Bachelor of Pharmacy degree from Rungta College of Pharmaceutical Science and Research and creates clear, accurate educational content on pharmacology, drug mechanisms of action, pharmacist learning, and GPAT exam preparation.

    Mail- Sachin@pharmacyfreak.com

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