Cardiovascular pathophysiology explores the mechanisms behind disorders of the heart and blood vessels, such as hypertension, heart failure, atherosclerosis, and arrhythmias. This quiz, based on Pharm.D. coursework including PHA5561 and PHA5515, assesses your understanding of the structural and functional changes in cardiovascular disease and their clinical consequences.
1. Atherosclerosis is best described as:
- A. Enlargement of heart chambers
- B. Accumulation of lipids in arterial walls
- C. Infection of heart valves
- D. Scarring of cardiac tissue
Correct answer: B. Accumulation of lipids in arterial walls
2. Which condition is caused by a blockage in a coronary artery?
- A. Stroke
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Congestive heart failure
Correct answer: C. Myocardial infarction
3. Hypertension is defined as a systolic blood pressure ≥:
- A. 120 mmHg
- B. 130 mmHg
- C. 140 mmHg
- D. 150 mmHg
Correct answer: B. 130 mmHg
4. Which heart sound is associated with the closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves?
- A. S1
- B. S2
- C. S3
- D. S4
Correct answer: A. S1
5. Which of the following is a key feature of left-sided heart failure?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Hepatomegaly
- C. Pulmonary congestion
- D. Jugular vein distension
Correct answer: C. Pulmonary congestion
6. Which biomarker is most specific for myocardial infarction?
- A. CK-MB
- B. Troponin I
- C. LDH
- D. ALT
Correct answer: B. Troponin I
7. Which of the following is a risk factor for atherosclerosis?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Low LDL
- C. Smoking
- D. Low blood glucose
Correct answer: C. Smoking
8. The Frank-Starling law relates to:
- A. Valve closure timing
- B. Electrical activity of the heart
- C. Stroke volume and ventricular stretch
- D. Coronary perfusion
Correct answer: C. Stroke volume and ventricular stretch
9. Which of the following is a common cause of secondary hypertension?
- A. Sleep apnea
- B. Diabetes
- C. Renal artery stenosis
- D. Sedentary lifestyle
Correct answer: C. Renal artery stenosis
10. What is the hallmark of congestive heart failure (CHF)?
- A. Elevated troponin
- B. Reduced ejection fraction
- C. Elevated HDL
- D. Prolonged QT interval
Correct answer: B. Reduced ejection fraction
11. Right-sided heart failure leads to:
- A. Pulmonary edema
- B. Dyspnea
- C. Peripheral edema and ascites
- D. Orthopnea
Correct answer: C. Peripheral edema and ascites
12. What causes angina pectoris?
- A. Valve stenosis
- B. Inflammation of coronary arteries
- C. Myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C. Myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply
13. Which valve disorder results in blood regurgitating into the left atrium?
- A. Aortic stenosis
- B. Tricuspid regurgitation
- C. Mitral regurgitation
- D. Pulmonary stenosis
Correct answer: C. Mitral regurgitation
14. A prolonged QT interval increases the risk of:
- A. Ventricular fibrillation
- B. Bradycardia
- C. First-degree AV block
- D. Atrial flutter
Correct answer: A. Ventricular fibrillation
15. Which type of shock is caused by heart pump failure?
- A. Hypovolemic shock
- B. Distributive shock
- C. Cardiogenic shock
- D. Septic shock
Correct answer: C. Cardiogenic shock
16. Which congenital heart defect is characterized by a “boot-shaped” heart?
- A. Ventricular septal defect
- B. Tetralogy of Fallot
- C. Atrial septal defect
- D. Coarctation of the aorta
Correct answer: B. Tetralogy of Fallot
17. Which of the following leads to increased preload?
- A. Diuretics
- B. Dehydration
- C. Fluid overload
- D. Vasodilators
Correct answer: C. Fluid overload
18. Which ECG change is typical of myocardial infarction?
- A. ST-segment elevation
- B. PR prolongation
- C. Shortened QT interval
- D. T-wave flattening
Correct answer: A. ST-segment elevation
19. An embolus in the coronary circulation causes:
- A. Pulmonary embolism
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Aortic dissection
- D. Ischemic stroke
Correct answer: B. Myocardial infarction
20. What hormone increases blood pressure through vasoconstriction?
- A. Insulin
- B. Aldosterone
- C. ADH
- D. Angiotensin II
Correct answer: D. Angiotensin II
21. Which of the following is a cause of dilated cardiomyopathy?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Viral myocarditis
- C. Diabetes
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: B. Viral myocarditis
22. In pericardial tamponade, what is impaired?
- A. Coronary artery perfusion
- B. Ventricular filling
- C. Aortic valve function
- D. Pulmonary gas exchange
Correct answer: B. Ventricular filling
23. What does BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide) indicate?
- A. Myocardial infarction
- B. Hyperlipidemia
- C. Heart failure severity
- D. Stroke risk
Correct answer: C. Heart failure severity
24. Endocarditis most commonly affects which heart structure?
- A. Myocardium
- B. Coronary arteries
- C. Valves
- D. Septum
Correct answer: C. Valves
25. Which arrhythmia is characterized by no identifiable P waves and irregularly irregular rhythm?
- A. Atrial flutter
- B. Atrial fibrillation
- C. Ventricular tachycardia
- D. Sinus tachycardia
Correct answer: B. Atrial fibrillation
26. Which lipid abnormality contributes most to atherosclerosis?
- A. High HDL
- B. High LDL
- C. High triglycerides
- D. Low VLDL
Correct answer: B. High LDL
27. An aneurysm is best described as:
- A. Valve narrowing
- B. Arterial wall rupture
- C. Localized dilation of an artery
- D. Myocardial rupture
Correct answer: C. Localized dilation of an artery
28. Which of the following reduces preload in heart failure patients?
- A. Beta-blockers
- B. ACE inhibitors
- C. Diuretics
- D. Digoxin
Correct answer: C. Diuretics
29. Atrial septal defect allows blood to flow from:
- A. Right atrium to left atrium
- B. Left atrium to right atrium
- C. Right ventricle to left ventricle
- D. Pulmonary vein to aorta
Correct answer: B. Left atrium to right atrium
30. What is the pathophysiological hallmark of hypertension?
- A. Increased cardiac output
- B. Increased peripheral vascular resistance
- C. Decreased blood volume
- D. Enhanced venous return
Correct answer: B. Increased peripheral vascular resistance
31. The most common cause of sudden cardiac death is:
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Pulmonary embolism
- C. Ventricular fibrillation
- D. Atrial fibrillation
Correct answer: C. Ventricular fibrillation
32. Which component of the ECG corresponds to ventricular depolarization?
- A. P wave
- B. QRS complex
- C. T wave
- D. PR interval
Correct answer: B. QRS complex
33. Which of the following is a non-modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease?
- A. Smoking
- B. High-fat diet
- C. Family history
- D. Sedentary lifestyle
Correct answer: C. Family history
34. Which murmur is associated with mitral valve stenosis?
- A. Systolic ejection murmur
- B. Diastolic rumble
- C. Continuous murmur
- D. Holosystolic murmur
Correct answer: B. Diastolic rumble
35. Which drug reduces heart rate and contractility?
- A. Diuretics
- B. Nitrates
- C. Beta-blockers
- D. ACE inhibitors
Correct answer: C. Beta-blockers
36. The “lub” sound of the heartbeat corresponds to:
- A. Opening of semilunar valves
- B. Closure of AV valves
- C. Ventricular filling
- D. Atrial contraction
Correct answer: B. Closure of AV valves
37. What triggers the release of renin in the kidneys?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypotension and low sodium
- D. Increased perfusion pressure
Correct answer: C. Hypotension and low sodium
38. Which condition leads to increased afterload?
- A. Aortic stenosis
- B. Mitral regurgitation
- C. Tricuspid insufficiency
- D. Hypovolemia
Correct answer: A. Aortic stenosis
39. An ECG finding of peaked T waves is most suggestive of:
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: B. Hyperkalemia
40. Which lifestyle change is most effective in reducing cardiovascular risk?
- A. Taking aspirin
- B. Smoking cessation
- C. Vitamin supplementation
- D. Avoiding dairy
Correct answer: B. Smoking cessation
41. What is the primary pacemaker of the heart?
- A. AV node
- B. Bundle of His
- C. SA node
- D. Purkinje fibers
Correct answer: C. SA node
42. Which condition involves narrowing of the aortic valve?
- A. Aortic insufficiency
- B. Aortic stenosis
- C. Aortic regurgitation
- D. Aortic coarctation
Correct answer: B. Aortic stenosis
43. What is the effect of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors?
- A. Increase sodium reabsorption
- B. Increase vasoconstriction
- C. Decrease afterload and blood pressure
- D. Increase heart rate
Correct answer: C. Decrease afterload and blood pressure
44. Which blood vessel has the thickest smooth muscle layer?
- A. Arteries
- B. Capillaries
- C. Veins
- D. Venules
Correct answer: A. Arteries
45. Which cardiac enzyme rises earliest after myocardial infarction?
- A. CK-MB
- B. Myoglobin
- C. Troponin
- D. LDH
Correct answer: B. Myoglobin
46. What is the result of prolonged hypertension on the heart?
- A. Atrial fibrillation
- B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Valve prolapse
Correct answer: B. Left ventricular hypertrophy
47. Which type of heart block is characterized by progressive prolongation of PR interval until a beat is dropped?
- A. First-degree
- B. Second-degree Mobitz I
- C. Second-degree Mobitz II
- D. Third-degree
Correct answer: B. Second-degree Mobitz I
48. Which heart condition may present with a “machinery murmur”?
- A. Aortic regurgitation
- B. Ventricular septal defect
- C. Patent ductus arteriosus
- D. Mitral stenosis
Correct answer: C. Patent ductus arteriosus
49. What does a dicrotic notch on an arterial pressure waveform represent?
- A. Onset of systole
- B. Atrial contraction
- C. Closure of the aortic valve
- D. Peak systolic pressure
Correct answer: C. Closure of the aortic valve
50. Which lipid component is considered “good” cholesterol?
- A. LDL
- B. VLDL
- C. HDL
- D. Triglycerides
Correct answer: C. HDL