Errors in prescription MCQs With Answer

Introduction: Errors in Prescription MCQs With Answer

Prescription errors are a major cause of preventable medication harm in clinical practice. For B. Pharm students, mastering safe prescribing principles—such as avoiding ambiguous abbreviations, managing look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) drugs, accurate dose calculation, renal/hepatic dose adjustment, and using evidence-based alerts—is essential. Key concepts include high-alert medications, the “Five Rights,” Tall Man lettering, e-prescribing/CPOE, therapeutic index, drug–drug interactions, and pharmacovigilance. Understanding transcribing, dispensing, and administration errors, along with root cause analysis (RCA) and near-miss reporting, helps build a systems approach to patient safety. This introduction emphasizes practical strategies to detect, prevent, and manage prescription errors in real-world pharmacy settings. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which statement best defines a prescription error?

  • Any preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate medication use or patient harm at the prescribing stage
  • Any adverse event occurring after drug administration regardless of cause
  • Any mistake made exclusively during drug manufacturing
  • Any deviation from brand substitution policy

Correct Answer: Any preventable event that may cause or lead to inappropriate medication use or patient harm at the prescribing stage

Q2. At which stage do most medication errors originate?

  • Prescribing
  • Transcribing
  • Dispensing
  • Administration

Correct Answer: Prescribing

Q3. Which practice best mitigates look-alike/sound-alike (LASA) drug errors?

  • Using Tall Man lettering on labels and electronic systems
  • Increasing font size only
  • Stocking LASA drugs together for convenience
  • Relying solely on brand names

Correct Answer: Using Tall Man lettering on labels and electronic systems

Q4. Which abbreviation should be avoided to prevent dose misinterpretation?

  • U for units
  • mg
  • mL
  • units

Correct Answer: U for units

Q5. Which notation is safest for a half-milligram dose?

  • .5 mg
  • 0.5 mg
  • 0.50 mg
  • 5.0 mg

Correct Answer: 0.5 mg

Q6. Which of the following is a high-alert medication commonly associated with serious harm if misused?

  • Heparin
  • Paracetamol
  • Cetirizine
  • Docusate

Correct Answer: Heparin

Q7. For pediatric prescriptions, inclusion of which parameter most reduces dosing errors?

  • Patient weight in kg
  • Patient height in cm
  • Patient BMI
  • Patient blood group

Correct Answer: Patient weight in kg

Q8. What is the primary safety advantage of computerized provider order entry (CPOE)?

  • Eliminates illegibility and supports clinical decision alerts
  • Removes need for pharmacist verification
  • Increases prescribing speed regardless of accuracy
  • Replaces drug interaction checks

Correct Answer: Eliminates illegibility and supports clinical decision alerts

Q9. A pharmacist receives an unclear dose on a prescription. What is the most appropriate action?

  • Clarify the order with the prescriber before dispensing
  • Estimate the most common dose and dispense
  • Ask the patient to choose the dose
  • Dispense the lowest dose available

Correct Answer: Clarify the order with the prescriber before dispensing

Q10. Which instruction is safest to indicate once-daily dosing?

  • QD
  • OD
  • Daily
  • q.d.

Correct Answer: Daily

Q11. What is the recommended maximum daily dose of acetaminophen for most adults?

  • 1000 mg
  • 2000 mg
  • 3000 mg
  • 4000 mg

Correct Answer: 4000 mg

Q12. Which drug is contraindicated in pregnancy and must trigger a prescription safety check?

  • Isotretinoin
  • Amoxicillin
  • Metformin
  • Levothyroxine

Correct Answer: Isotretinoin

Q13. Which parameter is most appropriate to guide renal dose adjustment?

  • Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) or creatinine clearance (CrCl)
  • Serum sodium
  • Liver transaminases
  • Hematocrit

Correct Answer: Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) or creatinine clearance (CrCl)

Q14. Which drug has a narrow therapeutic index requiring precise dosing and monitoring?

  • Lithium
  • Amoxicillin
  • Metformin
  • Loratadine

Correct Answer: Lithium

Q15. Which dosage form should not be crushed due to altered release and safety risks?

  • Enteric-coated tablet
  • Chewable tablet
  • Oral solution
  • Sublingual tablet

Correct Answer: Enteric-coated tablet

Q16. Which is NOT one of the “Five Rights” of medication safety?

  • Right patient
  • Right dose
  • Right time
  • Right cost

Correct Answer: Right cost

Q17. Which scenario best illustrates duplicate therapy risk?

  • Prescribing ibuprofen and naproxen together
  • Prescribing metformin and insulin in diabetes
  • Prescribing amlodipine and hydrochlorothiazide
  • Prescribing omeprazole and sucralfate

Correct Answer: Prescribing ibuprofen and naproxen together

Q18. Which combination poses a significant drug–drug interaction increasing bleeding risk?

  • Warfarin + trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole
  • Warfarin + acetaminophen 500 mg occasionally
  • Metformin + lisinopril
  • Aspirin low dose + atorvastatin

Correct Answer: Warfarin + trimethoprim–sulfamethoxazole

Q19. What is the primary value of reporting near-miss events?

  • Identifies system vulnerabilities before patient harm occurs
  • Assigns individual blame to prevent recurrence
  • Reduces documentation workload
  • Eliminates the need for audits

Correct Answer: Identifies system vulnerabilities before patient harm occurs

Q20. Root cause analysis (RCA) primarily aims to:

  • Understand system and process failures leading to errors
  • Discipline staff responsible for errors
  • Increase prescription volume
  • Eliminate the need for standard operating procedures

Correct Answer: Understand system and process failures leading to errors

Q21. Which pair is a classic LASA risk that warrants Tall Man lettering?

  • Clonazepam and clonidine
  • Metformin and metronidazole
  • Amlodipine and atenolol
  • Ceftriaxone and azithromycin

Correct Answer: Clonazepam and clonidine

Q22. Which is the safest way to express pediatric dosing on a prescription?

  • mg/kg with the child’s weight and the concentration of liquid specified
  • Teaspoons three times daily
  • As directed
  • One dropperful twice daily

Correct Answer: mg/kg with the child’s weight and the concentration of liquid specified

Q23. A boxed warning (black box warning) indicates:

  • The highest safety alert about serious or life-threatening risks
  • That the drug is safe for all populations
  • A warning only about minor side effects
  • Marketing restrictions without clinical implications

Correct Answer: The highest safety alert about serious or life-threatening risks

Q24. What best describes a transcription error?

  • Incorrectly copying a medication order into the medication administration record
  • Selecting the wrong drug during dispensing
  • Administering at the wrong time
  • Writing an incomplete diagnosis

Correct Answer: Incorrectly copying a medication order into the medication administration record

Q25. Which medication requires time-critical administration relative to meals to prevent errors?

  • Rapid-acting insulin before meals
  • Atorvastatin at night
  • Metformin any time of day
  • Vitamin D weekly

Correct Answer: Rapid-acting insulin before meals

Q26. Standardizing concentrations is especially important for which IV medication to reduce errors?

  • Potassium chloride
  • Normal saline
  • Multivitamin infusion
  • Glucose 5%

Correct Answer: Potassium chloride

Q27. Which statement aligns with ISMP recommendations on zero use?

  • Avoid trailing zeros and use a leading zero before decimal doses
  • Use trailing zeros for clarity
  • Never use a leading zero
  • Zeros are irrelevant to safety

Correct Answer: Avoid trailing zeros and use a leading zero before decimal doses

Q28. In medication safety, SALAD commonly refers to:

  • Sound-alike look-alike drugs
  • A diet plan for hypertensive patients
  • A sterile compounding technique
  • A type of adverse drug reaction

Correct Answer: Sound-alike look-alike drugs

Q29. Which allergy documentation is most informative for preventing prescription errors?

  • Allergen and specific reaction (e.g., penicillin—anaphylaxis)
  • Allergen only
  • “Allergic” without details
  • No known drug allergy assumed

Correct Answer: Allergen and specific reaction (e.g., penicillin—anaphylaxis)

Q30. What new risk can e-prescribing introduce despite reducing handwriting errors?

  • Wrong drug selection from similar options in drop-down menus
  • Increased illegibility
  • Loss of interaction checking
  • Elimination of clinical decision support

Correct Answer: Wrong drug selection from similar options in drop-down menus

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