Optimization techniques in pharmaceutical product development MCQs With Answer

Optimization techniques in pharmaceutical product development equip B. Pharm students with practical tools to design robust formulations and efficient processes. This concise introduction covers core keywords: design of experiments (DoE), quality by design (QbD), factorial and fractional designs, response surface methodology (RSM), central composite and Box–Behnken designs, screening methods (Plackett–Burman), critical quality attributes (CQAs), critical process parameters (CPPs), critical material attributes (CMAs), statistical analysis (ANOVA, interaction effects), robustness, scale-up, and process analytical technology (PAT). Learning these techniques helps reduce batch failures, shorten development time, and satisfy regulatory expectations. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which design is most suitable for initial screening of a large number of formulation factors to identify the few critical ones?

  • Full factorial design
  • Response surface methodology
  • Plackett–Burman design
  • Central composite design

Correct Answer: Plackett–Burman design

Q2. In Quality by Design (QbD), which element defines the measurable attributes that must be controlled to ensure product quality?

  • Critical process parameters (CPPs)
  • Critical quality attributes (CQAs)
  • Design space
  • Risk assessment

Correct Answer: Critical quality attributes (CQAs)

Q3. Which statistical method is commonly used to assess significance of factors and interactions in DoE?

  • Regression coefficient only
  • ANOVA (analysis of variance)
  • Kaplan–Meier analysis
  • Pareto distribution

Correct Answer: ANOVA (analysis of variance)

Q4. A 2^3 factorial design investigates how many factors and at how many levels per factor?

  • 3 factors at 2 levels each
  • 2 factors at 3 levels each
  • 3 factors at 3 levels each
  • 6 factors at 2 levels each

Correct Answer: 3 factors at 2 levels each

Q5. Which design is best for modeling curvature and optimizing a response when you have three numerical factors?

  • Plackett–Burman design
  • Box–Behnken design
  • Full factorial 2-level design
  • Screening design

Correct Answer: Box–Behnken design

Q6. Which DoE concept refers to the combined effect of two factors differing from the sum of their individual effects?

  • Main effect
  • Confounding
  • Interaction effect
  • Aliasing

Correct Answer: Interaction effect

Q7. Response Surface Methodology (RSM) commonly uses which two experimental designs for optimization?

  • Plackett–Burman and Taguchi
  • Central composite and Box–Behnken
  • Latin square and Graeco-Latin
  • Full factorial 2-level only

Correct Answer: Central composite and Box–Behnken

Q8. In formulation optimization, what is the primary objective of a desirability function?

  • To measure dissolution speed only
  • To combine multiple responses into a single optimization criterion
  • To increase the number of experiments
  • To eliminate variability completely

Correct Answer: To combine multiple responses into a single optimization criterion

Q9. Which term describes material properties such as particle size, polymorphic form, and moisture content that affect product quality?

  • Critical process parameters (CPPs)
  • Critical material attributes (CMAs)
  • Quality target product profile (QTPP)
  • Design space

Correct Answer: Critical material attributes (CMAs)

Q10. Which approach reduces the number of experimental runs compared to a full factorial design but risks confounding effects?

  • Fractional factorial design
  • Complete randomized block design
  • Central composite design
  • Box–Behnken design

Correct Answer: Fractional factorial design

Q11. In DoE, what does ‘aliasing’ mean?

  • Correlation between responses only
  • Inability to distinguish effects of two or more factors because they are confounded
  • Graphical representation of response surface
  • Randomization of runs

Correct Answer: Inability to distinguish effects of two or more factors because they are confounded

Q12. Which performance metric indicates how consistent a manufacturing process produces within specification limits?

  • Design space
  • Process capability (Cp, Cpk)
  • ANOVA F-value
  • Desirability index

Correct Answer: Process capability (Cp, Cpk)

Q13. For tablet dissolution optimization, which response variable is commonly modeled in DoE?

  • Tablet color only
  • Dissolution percentage at a specific time point
  • Operator preference score
  • Package size

Correct Answer: Dissolution percentage at a specific time point

Q14. Which screening design is efficient for identifying important factors but does not estimate interactions well?

  • Plackett–Burman design
  • Central composite design
  • Box–Behnken design
  • Full factorial design

Correct Answer: Plackett–Burman design

Q15. Which optimization technique explicitly explores the design space to find a region where quality attributes meet predefined acceptance criteria?

  • Risk assessment
  • Design space determination
  • Stability testing
  • Routine batch release

Correct Answer: Design space determination

Q16. Which of the following is a goal of robustness testing in formulation development?

  • To maximize cost only
  • To assess sensitivity of CQAs to small changes in CPPs and CMAs
  • To eliminate need for validation
  • To increase the number of excipients

Correct Answer: To assess sensitivity of CQAs to small changes in CPPs and CMAs

Q17. Which DoE element helps visualize responses and locate optimal regions using contour and surface plots?

  • Pareto chart
  • Response surface plots
  • Histogram
  • Scatter matrix only

Correct Answer: Response surface plots

Q18. When multiple objectives conflict (e.g., maximize dissolution but minimize impurity), which approach is commonly used?

  • Single-objective ANOVA
  • Multi-objective optimization using desirability or weighted functions
  • Ignore one objective
  • Use only full factorial design

Correct Answer: Multi-objective optimization using desirability or weighted functions

Q19. Taguchi methods in pharmaceutical development focus primarily on:

  • Modeling detailed curvature with many center points
  • Robust design to minimize variability from noise factors
  • Increasing number of factors without reducing runs
  • Assessing dissolution profiles only

Correct Answer: Robust design to minimize variability from noise factors

Q20. Which experimental design is tailored for mixture formulations where component proportions sum to a constant?

  • Mixture design
  • Fractional factorial 2-level design
  • Completely randomized design
  • Taguchi orthogonal arrays

Correct Answer: Mixture design

Q21. What is the primary purpose of establishing a Design Space under QbD?

  • To define ranges where CPPs can be varied without affecting CQAs
  • To set the color specification of tablets
  • To replace GMP requirements
  • To determine stability on market shelves only

Correct Answer: To define ranges where CPPs can be varied without affecting CQAs

Q22. In DoE analysis, a p-value less than 0.05 typically indicates:

  • No effect of the factor
  • Statistically significant effect of the factor
  • Model overfitting
  • Need for more center points

Correct Answer: Statistically significant effect of the factor

Q23. Which PAT tool provides real-time monitoring of critical quality attributes during manufacturing?

  • High-performance liquid chromatography (HPLC) offline testing only
  • Near-infrared spectroscopy (NIR) for in-line monitoring
  • Pareto chart after batch completion
  • Standard visual inspection

Correct Answer: Near-infrared spectroscopy (NIR) for in-line monitoring

Q24. Which design criterion seeks to maximize the determinant of the information matrix to improve parameter estimates?

  • A-optimality
  • D-optimality
  • Full factoriality
  • Taguchi optimality

Correct Answer: D-optimality

Q25. During scale-up, which factor is commonly considered to preserve mixing and mass transfer behavior?

  • Tablet color
  • Geometric and dynamic similarity (e.g., maintain impeller tip speed or Reynolds number)
  • Labeling design
  • Number of operators

Correct Answer: Geometric and dynamic similarity (e.g., maintain impeller tip speed or Reynolds number)

Q26. Which chart displays the magnitude and significance of factor effects from a DoE analysis?

  • Control chart
  • Pareto chart of effects
  • Box plot only
  • Kaplan–Meier plot

Correct Answer: Pareto chart of effects

Q27. What is the main advantage of a central composite design (CCD) over a 2-level factorial for RSM?

  • CCD cannot estimate quadratic terms
  • CCD allows efficient estimation of quadratic (curvature) effects
  • CCD always requires fewer runs than any other design
  • CCD eliminates need for replication

Correct Answer: CCD allows efficient estimation of quadratic (curvature) effects

Q28. Which validation activity ensures that optimized method or process consistently produces expected results over time?

  • Method development only
  • Method/process validation and ongoing verification
  • Initial screening design
  • One-off optimization run without replication

Correct Answer: Method/process validation and ongoing verification

Q29. In DoE, what does a lack-of-fit test evaluate?

  • Whether model residuals are normally distributed
  • Whether the chosen model form adequately describes the data beyond pure error
  • Whether the design is randomized
  • Whether factors are aliased

Correct Answer: Whether the chosen model form adequately describes the data beyond pure error

Q30. Which optimization strategy is useful when experimental runs are expensive and you iteratively update a surrogate model?

  • One-factor-at-a-time (OFAT)
  • Sequential design with Bayesian or sequential RSM (e.g., adaptive optimization)
  • Full factorial with exhaustive grid search
  • Unplanned exploratory testing

Correct Answer: Sequential design with Bayesian or sequential RSM (e.g., adaptive optimization)

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