National Malaria Prevention and Eradication Programme MCQs With Answer

The National Malaria Prevention and Eradication Programme MCQs With Answer is tailored for B.Pharm students seeking in-depth understanding of malaria control, case management, and public-health strategies. This set emphasizes key concepts such as malaria epidemiology, diagnostics (microscopy, RDT), treatment algorithms including Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy (ACT) and primaquine use, vector control measures like long-lasting insecticidal nets (LLINs) and Indoor Residual Spraying (IRS), surveillance, pharmacovigilance, and drug resistance monitoring. Questions integrate programmatic indicators, entomological control, supply-chain considerations, and rational therapeutics to prepare students for clinical and community pharmacy roles. Answers include brief explanations to reinforce learning and exam preparation. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. What is a primary objective of a National Malaria Prevention and Eradication Programme?

• Eradicate all mosquito species regardless of disease relevance
• Reduce malaria morbidity and mortality through early diagnosis and effective treatment
• Develop vaccines for all tropical diseases
• Promote antibiotic use for febrile illnesses

Correct Answer: Reduce malaria morbidity and mortality through early diagnosis and effective treatment

Q2. Which diagnostic method remains the reference standard for species identification in malaria?

• Rapid Diagnostic Test (RDT) detecting HRP2
• Peripheral blood smear microscopy
• Urine antigen testing
• Chest X-ray

Correct Answer: Peripheral blood smear microscopy

Q3. Which drug class is central to first-line treatment of uncomplicated Plasmodium falciparum in most national programmes?

• Chloroquine monotherapy
• Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy (ACT)
• Tetracyclines alone
• Aminoglycosides

Correct Answer: Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy (ACT)

Q4. Which intervention is most effective for personal protection against night-biting Anopheles mosquitoes?

• Long-lasting insecticidal nets (LLINs)
• Daytime UV lamps
• Topical antifungal creams
• Oral antimalarial prophylaxis for all residents

Correct Answer: Long-lasting insecticidal nets (LLINs)

Q5. Indoor Residual Spraying (IRS) primarily targets mosquitoes with which resting behavior?

• Exophilic, outdoor-resting species
• Endophilic, indoor-resting species
• Larvae in fast-flowing rivers
• Aedes mosquitoes that bite during the day

Correct Answer: Endophilic, indoor-resting species

Q6. Primaquine is used in malaria programmes mainly to:

• Treat severe falciparum malaria intravenously
• Provide radical cure by eliminating P. vivax hypnozoites
• Act as a prophylactic agent in infants under 2 months
• Replace ACT in high-resistance areas

Correct Answer: Provide radical cure by eliminating P. vivax hypnozoites

Q7. Before administering primaquine for radical cure, which test is recommended?

• Serum creatinine measurement
• G6PD deficiency screening
• Chest X-ray
• HIV rapid test

Correct Answer: G6PD deficiency screening

Q8. Which antigen is commonly detected by HRP2-based RDTs for P. falciparum?

• Plasmodium lactate dehydrogenase (pLDH)
• Histidine-rich protein 2 (HRP2)
• Glutamate dehydrogenase
• Hemoglobin A

Correct Answer: Histidine-rich protein 2 (HRP2)

Q9. What programmatic indicator measures the number of confirmed malaria cases per 1,000 population per year?

• Slide Positivity Rate (SPR)
• Annual Parasite Incidence (API)
• Vector Density Index (VDI)
• Case Fatality Ratio (CFR)

Correct Answer: Annual Parasite Incidence (API)

Q10. Which molecular marker is associated with artemisinin resistance monitoring in P. falciparum?

• pfcrt gene mutation
• kelch13 (K13) propeller domain mutations
• cytochrome b point mutation
• 18S rRNA amplification

Correct Answer: kelch13 (K13) propeller domain mutations

Q11. Which practice is recommended by national programmes to confirm malaria before treatment in non-severe cases?

• Treat based on clinical suspicion without testing
• Confirm with microscopy or RDT before antimalarial treatment
• Prescribe broad-spectrum antibiotics first
• Perform chest auscultation only

Correct Answer: Confirm with microscopy or RDT before antimalarial treatment

Q12. Which ACT combination is widely used and included in many national treatment guidelines?

• Artemether-lumefantrine
• Chloroquine-doxycycline
• Quinine-penicillin
• Sulfadoxine alone

Correct Answer: Artemether-lumefantrine

Q13. In pregnancy, what is the preferred approach to treat uncomplicated falciparum malaria in the first trimester?

• Artemisinin-based Combination Therapy immediately
• Quinine plus clindamycin
• Primaquine radical cure
• No treatment until the second trimester

Correct Answer: Quinine plus clindamycin

Q14. Which vector control insecticide class is most commonly used on LLINs?

• Pyrethroids
• Organophosphates
• Carbamates
• Neonicotinoids

Correct Answer: Pyrethroids

Q15. What does Slide Positivity Rate (SPR) indicate?

• Proportion of blood slides positive among those examined
• Number of mosquitoes caught per house
• Percentage of treated nets in use
• Recovery rate after treatment

Correct Answer: Proportion of blood slides positive among those examined

Q16. Which activity describes active case detection (ACD) in malaria surveillance?

• Waiting for patients to present to health facilities
• Searching for febrile cases in the community by health workers
• Only laboratory-based reporting of positive slides
• Mass distribution of antibiotics

Correct Answer: Searching for febrile cases in the community by health workers

Q17. Which strategy may be used in elimination settings to rapidly reduce transmission in a defined area?

• Mass Drug Administration (MDA)
• Routine childhood immunization
• Daily administration of vitamin supplements
• Use of non-selective herbicides

Correct Answer: Mass Drug Administration (MDA)

Q18. Which adverse effect is a major concern with primaquine in G6PD-deficient individuals?

• Nephrotoxicity
• Hemolytic anemia
• Pulmonary fibrosis
• Thrombocytopenia

Correct Answer: Hemolytic anemia

Q19. Which entomological measure estimates the number of infectious bites per person per unit time?

• Entomological Inoculation Rate (EIR)
• Basic Reproduction Number (R0)
• Parasite Density Index (PDI)
• Host Infectivity Rate (HIR)

Correct Answer: Entomological Inoculation Rate (EIR)

Q20. Which supply-chain issue is most critical to prevent stock-outs of antimalarial medicines at peripheral health facilities?

• Inadequate pharmaceutical counseling
• Poor forecasting and buffer stock management
• Excessive cold chain capacity
• Overuse of oral rehydration solutions

Correct Answer: Poor forecasting and buffer stock management

Q21. Which of the following is a common cause of false-negative HRP2 RDT results in P. falciparum?

• High parasite density above 100,000/µL
• Parasites with HRP2 gene deletions
• Recent use of chloroquine
• Presence of P. vivax co-infection only

Correct Answer: Parasites with HRP2 gene deletions

Q22. Which treatment is recommended for severe malaria according to WHO guidelines?

• Oral chloroquine for 3 days
• Intravenous artesunate followed by complete oral ACT
• Single dose of primaquine only
• Oral doxycycline monotherapy

Correct Answer: Intravenous artesunate followed by complete oral ACT

Q23. What role does pharmacovigilance play in a national malaria programme?

• It ensures insecticide rotation schedules
• It monitors safety and adverse reactions to antimalarial drugs
• It distributes LLINs to households
• It maps mosquito breeding sites using drones

Correct Answer: It monitors safety and adverse reactions to antimalarial drugs

Q24. Which measure helps delay insecticide resistance in mosquito populations?

• Exclusive use of a single insecticide class indefinitely
• Insecticide rotation and integrated vector management
• Abolishing LLIN distribution
• Increasing household pesticide sprays without guidance

Correct Answer: Insecticide rotation and integrated vector management

Q25. Which population group should be prioritized for intermittent preventive treatment in pregnancy (IPTp) where recommended?

• All children under five only
• Pregnant women in moderate-to-high transmission areas
• Only men working outdoors
• Non-pregnant adolescents

Correct Answer: Pregnant women in moderate-to-high transmission areas

Q26. Which laboratory parameter requires monitoring in patients receiving quinine therapy for severe malaria?

• Serum sodium only
• Blood glucose and ECG for arrhythmias
• Urine ketones exclusively
• Serum amylase weekly

Correct Answer: Blood glucose and ECG for arrhythmias

Q27. Which community intervention increases early care-seeking and reduces malaria burden?

• Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) campaigns
• Distribution of antibiotics without diagnosis
• Mandatory home quarantine for all residents
• Promoting herbal preparations without evidence

Correct Answer: Information, Education, and Communication (IEC) campaigns

Q28. Which operational research topic is most relevant to monitor antimalarial drug efficacy?

• Studying mosquito color preferences
• Therapeutic efficacy studies (TES) assessing clinical and parasitological response
• Measuring vitamin D levels in patients
• Surveying hospital bed sizes

Correct Answer: Therapeutic efficacy studies (TES) assessing clinical and parasitological response

Q29. Which action is appropriate when a health facility detects recurrent parasitaemia after ACT treatment within 28 days?

• Ignore and advise rest only
• Report case, collect sample for molecular analysis, and manage according to guidelines
• Immediately switch to chloroquine without testing
• Prescribe antifungals

Correct Answer: Report case, collect sample for molecular analysis, and manage according to guidelines

Q30. Which characteristic of Anopheles mosquitoes is most important for selecting vector control measures?

• Wing length measurement
• Biting time and resting behavior (indoor vs outdoor)
• Color pattern on abdomen
• Ability to transmit influenza viruses

Correct Answer: Biting time and resting behavior (indoor vs outdoor)

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