Management and reporting of clinical studies MCQs With Answer

Introduction: Management and reporting of clinical studies involve planning, conducting, monitoring, and documenting clinical trials to ensure data quality, patient safety, and regulatory compliance. Key concepts for B.Pharm students include clinical trial management, protocol development, informed consent, ICH-GCP, data management, case report forms (CRFs), pharmacovigilance, adverse event reporting, data monitoring committees, statistical analysis plans, and clinical study reports (CSRs). Understanding regulatory submissions, audit and inspection readiness, SAE/SUSAR timelines, and ethical oversight strengthens competency in clinical research operations. This foundation prepares students for roles in trial coordination, quality assurance, and regulatory affairs. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which document provides the detailed plan for conduct, management, and analysis of a clinical study?

  • Informed Consent Form
  • Clinical Study Protocol
  • Case Report Form (CRF)
  • Investigator Brochure

Correct Answer: Clinical Study Protocol

Q2. Which guideline is considered the international standard for good clinical practice in clinical trials?

  • GLP
  • ICH-GCP
  • ISO 9001
  • GMP

Correct Answer: ICH-GCP

Q3. What is the primary purpose of an independent Data Monitoring Committee (DMC/DSMB)?

  • To prepare the final clinical study report
  • To monitor subject safety and trial efficacy data
  • To write the investigator brochure
  • To perform CRF data entry

Correct Answer: To monitor subject safety and trial efficacy data

Q4. Which form is used to collect clinical trial data for each participant?

  • Safety Report Form
  • Case Report Form (CRF)
  • Regulatory Submission Dossier
  • Protocol Amendment

Correct Answer: Case Report Form (CRF)

Q5. What does SAE stand for in clinical research reporting?

  • Serious Adverse Event
  • Standard Adverse Evaluation
  • Safety Assessment Endpoint
  • Study Adverse Expectation

Correct Answer: Serious Adverse Event

Q6. Which report summarizes the design, methods, results, and interpretation of a clinical trial?

  • Clinical Study Report (CSR)
  • Investigator Agreement
  • Ethics Committee Minutes
  • Source Document Log

Correct Answer: Clinical Study Report (CSR)

Q7. What is the typical regulatory timeline for reporting a SUSAR to health authorities?

  • Within 7-15 days depending on fatality and regulations
  • Within 60 days
  • At the end of the study only
  • Only when requested by the investigator

Correct Answer: Within 7-15 days depending on fatality and regulations

Q8. Which element ensures the identity of treatment allocation is hidden from participants and/or investigators?

  • Randomization sequence
  • Blinding
  • Source data verification
  • Case report form

Correct Answer: Blinding

Q9. What is allocation concealment intended to prevent?

  • Participants dropping out
  • Selection bias during enrollment
  • Data entry errors
  • Adverse event reporting

Correct Answer: Selection bias during enrollment

Q10. Which committee grants approval for the ethical conduct of a clinical trial at a site?

  • Data Monitoring Committee
  • Regulatory Authority
  • Independent Ethics Committee / Institutional Review Board
  • Study Sponsor Board

Correct Answer: Independent Ethics Committee / Institutional Review Board

Q11. Which document explains risks, benefits, and procedures to potential participants?

  • Source Document
  • Informed Consent Form (ICF)
  • Monitoring Plan
  • Statistical Analysis Plan

Correct Answer: Informed Consent Form (ICF)

Q12. What is the role of a clinical trial monitor (CRA)?

  • To manufacture the investigational product
  • To ensure trial conduct, data integrity, and site compliance
  • To perform statistical analyses
  • To approve regulatory submissions

Correct Answer: To ensure trial conduct, data integrity, and site compliance

Q13. Which process verifies that CRF entries match source documents?

  • Source Data Verification (SDV)
  • Data Locking
  • Randomization
  • Pharmacovigilance Signal Detection

Correct Answer: Source Data Verification (SDV)

Q14. What is the primary purpose of pharmacovigilance in clinical studies?

  • To recruit study participants
  • To monitor and assess adverse events and drug safety
  • To write the protocol
  • To invoice study sites

Correct Answer: To monitor and assess adverse events and drug safety

Q15. Which section of a CSR typically contains statistical analyses and result tables?

  • Introduction
  • Methods
  • Results
  • Appendices

Correct Answer: Results

Q16. What is an investigator brochure (IB)?

  • A document summarizing clinical and nonclinical data on the investigational product
  • A list of site staff contacts
  • A monitoring visit schedule
  • A randomized allocation list

Correct Answer: A document summarizing clinical and nonclinical data on the investigational product

Q17. Which coding dictionary is commonly used for adverse event terminology in clinical trials?

  • MedDRA
  • ICD-10
  • SNOMED CT
  • LOINC

Correct Answer: MedDRA

Q18. Which activity is a sponsor responsibility in clinical study management?

  • Obtaining regulatory approvals and ensuring trial oversight
  • Signing the informed consent forms for subjects
  • Performing all site assessments personally
  • Manufacturing unrelated drugs

Correct Answer: Obtaining regulatory approvals and ensuring trial oversight

Q19. What is a protocol deviation?

  • A planned amendment to the protocol
  • An unplanned departure from the approved protocol
  • A routine monitoring activity
  • A statistical analysis method

Correct Answer: An unplanned departure from the approved protocol

Q20. Which plan defines the pre-specified statistical methods for analyzing trial data?

  • Data Management Plan
  • Statistical Analysis Plan (SAP)
  • Investigator Agreement
  • Monitoring Plan

Correct Answer: Statistical Analysis Plan (SAP)

Q21. What does eCRF refer to?

  • Electronic Case Report Form
  • Emergency Clinical Research Facility
  • External Clinical Review Form
  • Estimated Clinical Response Function

Correct Answer: Electronic Case Report Form

Q22. Which is a key objective of source document retention and audit trail?

  • To increase sample size
  • To ensure traceability and data integrity
  • To randomize subjects
  • To blind the study

Correct Answer: To ensure traceability and data integrity

Q23. What distinguishes an adverse event (AE) from an adverse reaction?

  • An AE is always drug-related; an adverse reaction is not
  • An AE is any untoward medical occurrence; an adverse reaction is suspected to be drug-related
  • There is no difference
  • An AE is only reported post-marketing

Correct Answer: An AE is any untoward medical occurrence; an adverse reaction is suspected to be drug-related

Q24. What is the purpose of a monitoring plan?

  • To define monitoring strategy, frequency, and responsibilities for site oversight
  • To recruit investigators
  • To prepare the final CSR
  • To code adverse events

Correct Answer: To define monitoring strategy, frequency, and responsibilities for site oversight

Q25. Which process occurs when a database is finalized and no further changes are allowed before analysis?

  • Data Cleaning
  • Data Locking
  • Randomization
  • Source Data Verification

Correct Answer: Data Locking

Q26. Which document must be updated and re-approved if the trial protocol is changed?

  • Investigator brochure only
  • Protocol amendment and often informed consent and regulatory submissions
  • Only the statistical analysis plan
  • No documents need updates

Correct Answer: Protocol amendment and often informed consent and regulatory submissions

Q27. What is the significance of the clinical trial registry (e.g., ClinicalTrials.gov)?

  • To provide a public record of trial objectives, design, and outcomes for transparency
  • To replace ethics committee approval
  • To store source documents
  • To manage investigational product inventory

Correct Answer: To provide a public record of trial objectives, design, and outcomes for transparency

Q28. Which term describes a previously unreported adverse reaction that is both serious and unexpected?

  • Common Adverse Event
  • SUSAR (Suspected Unexpected Serious Adverse Reaction)
  • Protocol Deviation
  • Serious Adverse Event only

Correct Answer: SUSAR (Suspected Unexpected Serious Adverse Reaction)

Q29. What is the role of quality assurance (QA) audits in clinical trials?

  • To conduct patient visits
  • To independently evaluate compliance with GCP and protocols
  • To prepare informed consent documents
  • To randomize participants

Correct Answer: To independently evaluate compliance with GCP and protocols

Q30. Which factor is essential when calculating sample size for a clinical study?

  • Number of monitors available
  • Expected effect size, variability, power, and significance level
  • Length of the informed consent form
  • Number of CRF pages

Correct Answer: Expected effect size, variability, power, and significance level

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