Pharmacist in relation to medical profession MCQs With Answer

The pharmacist in relation to medical profession MCQs with answer is an essential resource for B.Pharm students focused on clinical pharmacy, pharmaceutical care, pharmacovigilance, drug interactions, and hospital pharmacy practice. This concise, keyword-rich introduction highlights roles like medication therapy management, prescription validation, patient counseling, therapeutic drug monitoring, aseptic compounding, and participation in multidisciplinary medical teams. Understanding regulatory bodies, drug schedules, antimicrobial stewardship, and adverse drug reaction reporting strengthens professional competence. These MCQs deepen knowledge of dispensing, clinical decision support, ethics, and safe medication use while preparing students for exams and real-world practice. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which primary responsibility best describes a pharmacist’s role within the medical profession?

  • Performing surgical procedures
  • Providing medication therapy management and pharmaceutical care
  • Diagnosing infectious diseases
  • Conducting physical therapy sessions

Correct Answer: Providing medication therapy management and pharmaceutical care

Q2. Which activity is a core function of clinical pharmacy?

  • Large-scale drug manufacturing
  • Therapeutic drug monitoring and individualized therapy
  • Retail store merchandising
  • Packaging design for OTC products

Correct Answer: Therapeutic drug monitoring and individualized therapy

Q3. Which national program in India focuses on adverse drug reaction monitoring and reporting?

  • FDA MedWatch
  • Pharmacovigilance Programme of India (PvPI)
  • European Medicines Agency (EMA) Vigilance
  • Drug Safety Evaluation Cell (DSEC)

Correct Answer: Pharmacovigilance Programme of India (PvPI)

Q4. How is “pharmaceutical care” best defined?

  • Mass production of medications
  • Responsible provision of medication therapy to achieve defined patient outcomes
  • Retail sales of health products
  • Marketing drugs to hospitals

Correct Answer: Responsible provision of medication therapy to achieve defined patient outcomes

Q5. Under common drug scheduling, which schedule typically includes strictly controlled, habit-forming medicines requiring special records?

  • Schedule H
  • Schedule X
  • Schedule M
  • Schedule G

Correct Answer: Schedule X

Q6. What is the most effective single process to reduce medication errors during care transitions?

  • Medication reconciliation
  • Color-coding drug shelves
  • Advertising generic brands
  • Shorter pharmacy opening hours

Correct Answer: Medication reconciliation

Q7. Which expression correctly relates steady-state concentration (Css) with dosing rate and clearance?

  • Css = Clearance / Dosing rate
  • Css = Dosing rate × Volume of distribution
  • Css = Dosing rate / Clearance
  • Css = Half-life / Dosing interval

Correct Answer: Css = Dosing rate / Clearance

Q8. Which example best describes extemporaneous compounding in a pharmacy?

  • Large-batch tablet compression at a pharmaceutical company
  • Preparing a patient-specific topical cream from raw ingredients
  • Manufacturing a branded inhaler device
  • Wholesale distribution to retail outlets

Correct Answer: Preparing a patient-specific topical cream from raw ingredients

Q9. What is the clinical pharmacist’s typical role during multidisciplinary hospital ward rounds?

  • Leading surgical decision-making
  • Reviewing medications, recommending therapy changes, and preventing errors
  • Scheduling patient appointments
  • Taking patient vitals and performing lab tests

Correct Answer: Reviewing medications, recommending therapy changes, and preventing errors

Q10. Which drug commonly requires therapeutic drug monitoring because of a narrow therapeutic index?

  • Amoxicillin
  • Vancomycin
  • Aspirin
  • Ibuprofen

Correct Answer: Vancomycin

Q11. Which term describes interactions due to changes in drug-metabolizing enzymes (e.g., CYP induction or inhibition)?

  • Pharmacodynamic interaction
  • Pharmacokinetic interaction
  • Allergic interaction
  • Formulation interaction

Correct Answer: Pharmacokinetic interaction

Q12. Type A adverse drug reactions are best characterized as:

  • Unpredictable and not dose-related
  • Dose-dependent and predictable from pharmacology
  • Only occurring after long-term exposure
  • Always immunologic in origin

Correct Answer: Dose-dependent and predictable from pharmacology

Q13. Which practice is a key component of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP)?

  • Ignoring patient questions to save time
  • Providing patient counseling on safe and effective medicine use
  • Refusing to dispense generics
  • Marketing non-evidence-based supplements

Correct Answer: Providing patient counseling on safe and effective medicine use

Q14. Which regulatory body is primarily responsible for drug approval and regulation in India?

  • Food and Drug Administration (FDA) USA
  • Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
  • European Medicines Agency (EMA)
  • National Institutes of Health (NIH)

Correct Answer: Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)

Q15. For how long should prescription records commonly be retained in many pharmacy practice guidelines?

  • 6 months
  • 1 year
  • 3 years
  • 10 years

Correct Answer: 3 years

Q16. Which piece of equipment is essential for aseptic sterile compounding of parenteral products?

  • Rotary tablet press
  • Laminar airflow hood
  • Heating mantle
  • Analytical balance only

Correct Answer: Laminar airflow hood

Q17. Which vaccine is commonly administered by pharmacists in community and clinical settings?

  • Influenza vaccine
  • Rabies vaccine for wildlife only
  • Exclusive in-hospital investigational vaccines
  • Unlicensed experimental vaccines without protocol

Correct Answer: Influenza vaccine

Q18. Which activity is a core responsibility of antimicrobial stewardship programs where pharmacists contribute?

  • Increasing broad-spectrum antibiotic use indiscriminately
  • Reviewing and optimizing antibiotic prescriptions
  • Promoting antibiotics for viral infections
  • Removing diagnostic microbiology services

Correct Answer: Reviewing and optimizing antibiotic prescriptions

Q19. What is the correct definition of bioavailability (F)?

  • The rate at which a drug is metabolized in the liver
  • The fraction of an administered dose that reaches systemic circulation intact
  • The drug concentration in urine
  • The volume into which a drug distributes

Correct Answer: The fraction of an administered dose that reaches systemic circulation intact

Q20. Which counseling point is essential when teaching a patient to use a dry powder inhaler?

  • Take several rapid shallow breaths after actuation
  • Coordinate deep inhalation with actuation and hold breath briefly
  • Use only one puff per day regardless of prescription
  • Shake the inhaler vigorously before each inhalation

Correct Answer: Coordinate deep inhalation with actuation and hold breath briefly

Q21. What is the recommended refrigerator temperature range for storing most vaccines?

  • -20 to -10 °C
  • 0 to 1 °C
  • 2 to 8 °C
  • 15 to 25 °C

Correct Answer: 2 to 8 °C

Q22. Approximately how many half-lives are required for a drug to reach steady state with repeated dosing?

  • 1 half-life
  • 2 half-lives
  • 4–5 half-lives
  • 10–12 half-lives

Correct Answer: 4–5 half-lives

Q23. Which is a typical pharmacist responsibility in clinical trials?

  • Designing the trial protocol without team input
  • Ensuring investigational drug accountability and protocol-compliant dispensing
  • Recruiting patients without consent
  • Randomizing patients covertly

Correct Answer: Ensuring investigational drug accountability and protocol-compliant dispensing

Q24. What is the primary aim of pharmacovigilance?

  • Maximizing drug advertising reach
  • Detecting, assessing, understanding, and preventing adverse drug reactions
  • Speeding up drug approvals by bypassing safety checks
  • Promoting off-label use without evidence

Correct Answer: Detecting, assessing, understanding, and preventing adverse drug reactions

Q25. Which route of administration most reliably bypasses first-pass hepatic metabolism?

  • Oral (swallowed)
  • Sublingual
  • Enteric-coated oral
  • Rectal

Correct Answer: Sublingual

Q26. Which measurable outcome is commonly used to assess the success of pharmaceutical care interventions?

  • Number of marketing brochures distributed
  • Improved medication adherence and clinical outcomes
  • Volume of drug inventory turnover only
  • Length of pharmacy waiting room chairs

Correct Answer: Improved medication adherence and clinical outcomes

Q27. Which drug is well known for teratogenic risk and requires careful counseling in pregnancy?

  • Paracetamol
  • Warfarin
  • Insulin
  • Levothyroxine

Correct Answer: Warfarin

Q28. What does “generic substitution” mean in pharmacy practice?

  • Replacing a brand-name drug with an equivalent generic product
  • Mixing two brand drugs into one capsule
  • Changing the route of administration without consent
  • Substituting prescription drugs with dietary supplements

Correct Answer: Replacing a brand-name drug with an equivalent generic product

Q29. Which calculation method is commonly used to determine proportions when mixing solutions of different strengths?

  • Quadratic formula
  • Alligation method
  • Logarithmic interpolation
  • Root mean square

Correct Answer: Alligation method

Q30. Which ethical principle requires pharmacists to protect patient medical information?

  • Nonmaleficence
  • Justice
  • Confidentiality
  • Autonomy only

Correct Answer: Confidentiality

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