Pharmacist in relation to his job MCQs With Answer

Pharmacists play a central role in safe and effective medicine use, combining clinical knowledge, dispensing skills, and regulatory duties to protect patient health. This resource covers core job functions: prescription validation, dose calculations, drug interactions, compounding, medication counseling, inventory and cold-chain management, pharmacovigilance, antimicrobial stewardship, and legal–ethical responsibilities. Tailored for B.Pharm students, these MCQs delve into practical scenarios, problem solving, good dispensing practices, and current standards in hospital and community pharmacy. Mastery of these areas improves clinical decision-making, reduces medication errors, and ensures compliance with drug regulation and patient safety protocols. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. What is the primary responsibility of a pharmacist when receiving a prescription?

  • Validate prescription for legality and appropriateness
  • Automatically substitute with the cheapest generic
  • Diagnose the patient before dispensing
  • Perform a full physical examination

Correct Answer: Validate prescription for legality and appropriateness

Q2. Which act in India primarily regulates narcotic and psychotropic substances?

  • Drugs and Cosmetics Act
  • Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act
  • Pharmacy Act
  • Indian Medical Council Act

Correct Answer: Narcotic Drugs and Psychotropic Substances Act

Q3. Which schedule of the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules lists medicines that can be sold only on prescription in India?

  • Schedule H
  • Schedule X
  • Schedule G
  • Schedule M

Correct Answer: Schedule H

Q4. What is pharmacovigilance?

  • Monitoring and prevention of adverse drug reactions
  • Manufacturing quality control of drugs
  • Advertising and promotion of pharmaceuticals
  • Compounding of sterile products

Correct Answer: Monitoring and prevention of adverse drug reactions

Q5. Best practice for counseling a patient on inhaler use is to:

  • Demonstrate inhaler technique and observe patient use
  • Give a printed leaflet and tell the patient to read it
  • Only explain dosage frequency verbally
  • Refer the patient to the physician without instruction

Correct Answer: Demonstrate inhaler technique and observe patient use

Q6. Ideal storage temperature for most refrigerated vaccines is:

  • -20°C
  • 2–8°C
  • 15–25°C
  • Room temperature above 25°C

Correct Answer: 2–8°C

Q7. An adverse drug reaction that is dose-related and predictable is classified as:

  • Type A (Augmented)
  • Type B (Bizarre)
  • Type C (Chronic)
  • Type D (Delayed)

Correct Answer: Type A (Augmented)

Q8. Which tool is most useful for a pharmacist to check potential drug–drug interactions?

  • Drug interaction checker software or database
  • Increase the dose of both drugs
  • Discontinue all current medications
  • Prescribe a brand-name medicine only

Correct Answer: Drug interaction checker software or database

Q9. Serious unexpected adverse drug reactions should be reported to pharmacovigilance authorities within:

  • 24 hours
  • 48 hours
  • Within 7 days
  • 30 days

Correct Answer: Within 7 days

Q10. To calculate infusion rate in mL/hr, which approach is correct when dose is given in mg/hr and solution concentration is mg/mL?

  • Divide required dose (mg/hr) by concentration (mg/mL)
  • Multiply dose (mg/hr) by concentration (mg/mL)
  • Add dose and concentration values
  • Use patient’s weight only

Correct Answer: Divide required dose (mg/hr) by concentration (mg/mL)

Q11. Generic substitution refers to:

  • Replacing a branded drug with its generic equivalent
  • Changing the route of administration
  • Mixing two drugs in one container
  • Altering the active ingredient

Correct Answer: Replacing a branded drug with its generic equivalent

Q12. Which practice is a core component of antimicrobial stewardship in pharmacy?

  • Restricting unnecessary broad‑spectrum antibiotic use
  • Automatically prescribing antibiotics for all fevers
  • Increasing antibiotic doses to maximum for all patients
  • Promoting antibiotic use for viral infections

Correct Answer: Restricting unnecessary broad‑spectrum antibiotic use

Q13. A prescription for Schedule H drugs must be issued by which person?

  • Registered medical practitioner
  • Registered pharmacist
  • Hospital administrator
  • Pharmaceutical sales representative

Correct Answer: Registered medical practitioner

Q14. Which element is essential to include on a dispensed medication label?

  • Dosage and directions for use
  • Manufacturer’s confidential formula
  • Prescriber’s private notes
  • Wholesale purchase price

Correct Answer: Dosage and directions for use

Q15. Compounding sterile parenteral products should be performed in a:

  • Laminar Air Flow (LAF) hood or ISO Class 5 environment
  • Regular bench in the dispensary
  • Open window area for ventilation
  • Public consultation counter

Correct Answer: Laminar Air Flow (LAF) hood or ISO Class 5 environment

Q16. Body surface area (BSA) for pediatric dosing is commonly estimated using which formula?

  • Mosteller formula
  • Body mass index formula
  • GFR estimation formula
  • Ideal body weight formula

Correct Answer: Mosteller formula

Q17. Which instrument is used to measure tablet strength (mechanical integrity)?

  • Tablet hardness tester
  • Spectrophotometer
  • pH meter
  • Viscometer

Correct Answer: Tablet hardness tester

Q18. A key principle of Good Dispensing Practice is:

  • Providing patient counseling and clear instructions
  • Dispensing without checking prescription
  • Hiding side‑effect information to avoid alarm
  • Prioritizing speed over accuracy

Correct Answer: Providing patient counseling and clear instructions

Q19. The most common root cause of medication errors is:

  • Poor communication among healthcare providers
  • High quality electronic prescribing systems
  • Excessive patient counseling
  • Strict regulatory oversight

Correct Answer: Poor communication among healthcare providers

Q20. Which activity is NOT typically a responsibility of a community pharmacist?

  • Performing minor surgical procedures
  • Dispensing prescribed medicines
  • Providing health education and counseling
  • Managing inventory and expiry dates

Correct Answer: Performing minor surgical procedures

Q21. Which authority is responsible for approval of new drugs in India?

  • Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)
  • National Medical Commission
  • Pharmacy Council of India
  • State Health Department only

Correct Answer: Central Drugs Standard Control Organization (CDSCO)

Q22. For controlled substances, pharmacists must maintain which type of record?

  • Narcotic or controlled drugs register
  • Daily promotional leaflet log
  • Generic substitution preference file
  • Patient complaint diary only

Correct Answer: Narcotic or controlled drugs register

Q23. The shelf‑life of a drug is defined as the period during which the product:

  • Retains required potency and meets specifications under defined storage conditions
  • Can be safely ingested irrespective of storage
  • Is no longer available commercially
  • Has changed its brand name

Correct Answer: Retains required potency and meets specifications under defined storage conditions

Q24. Which study design assesses drug stability under accelerated temperature and humidity conditions?

  • Accelerated stability testing
  • Randomized clinical trial
  • Cohort observational study
  • Case‑control study

Correct Answer: Accelerated stability testing

Q25. An antagonistic interaction at receptor level is an example of which type of drug interaction?

  • Pharmacodynamic interaction
  • Pharmacokinetic interaction
  • Chemical incompatibility
  • Formulation interaction

Correct Answer: Pharmacodynamic interaction

Q26. Which of the following drugs commonly requires therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM)?

  • Lithium
  • Paracetamol
  • Amoxicillin
  • Ibuprofen

Correct Answer: Lithium

Q27. Which element is mandatory on a valid prescription?

  • Prescriber’s signature and registration number
  • Pharmacist’s personal notes
  • Patient’s employment history
  • Wholesale purchase invoice

Correct Answer: Prescriber’s signature and registration number

Q28. If a dispensing error is discovered after the patient has left, the pharmacist should first:

  • Contact the patient and the prescriber to rectify and counsel
  • Ignore the error if no complaint is received
  • Destroy remaining stock quietly
  • Change the prescription record without informing anyone

Correct Answer: Contact the patient and the prescriber to rectify and counsel

Q29. Bioequivalence between two pharmaceutical products means they have:

  • Similar bioavailability and therapeutic effect when given at the same dose
  • Exactly identical inactive ingredients
  • Different active ingredient but same brand name
  • Shorter shelf life than innovator product

Correct Answer: Similar bioavailability and therapeutic effect when given at the same dose

Q30. Proper disposal method for cytotoxic drug waste from a pharmacy is:

  • Incineration as hazardous clinical waste
  • Flushing down the sink
  • Mixing with general municipal waste
  • Burning in an open pit

Correct Answer: Incineration as hazardous clinical waste

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