Anterior pituitary hormones and analogues MCQs With Answer

Understanding anterior pituitary hormones and their pharmacologic analogues is essential for B.Pharm students studying endocrine therapeutics. This review covers physiology, receptor mechanisms, signal transduction, and clinical pharmacology of growth hormone, prolactin, ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH and common analogues such as somatropin, octreotide, lanreotide, bromocriptine and cabergoline. Emphasis is on indications, mechanisms of action, adverse effects, monitoring parameters and clinical scenarios including acromegaly, GH deficiency, prolactinomas and steroid testing. These keyword-rich MCQs will deepen your knowledge of peptide hormone pharmacokinetics, hypothalamic regulation, pituitary pathology and modern therapeutic analogues. Questions integrate pharmacodynamics, adverse reactions and case-based monitoring to prepare you for exams and clinical practice. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which hormones are secreted by the anterior pituitary?

  • Oxytocin and vasopressin
  • Growth hormone, prolactin, ACTH, TSH, FSH and LH
  • Thyroxine and triiodothyronine
  • Insulin and glucagon

Correct Answer: Growth hormone, prolactin, ACTH, TSH, FSH and LH

Q2. Somatotrophs, the cells that secrete growth hormone (GH), are classified as which pituitary cell type?

  • Chromophobes
  • Basophils
  • Acidophils (somatotrophs)
  • Pars intermedia cells

Correct Answer: Acidophils (somatotrophs)

Q3. The primary peripheral mediator of many growth hormone effects is:

  • Direct activation of insulin receptors
  • Hepatic production of IGF-1 (somatomedin C)
  • Increased thyroid hormone secretion
  • Activation of renin–angiotensin system

Correct Answer: Hepatic production of IGF-1 (somatomedin C)

Q4. Which second messenger system is primarily used by TSH, LH and FSH receptors?

  • cGMP via guanylyl cyclase
  • Tyrosine kinase autophosphorylation
  • Gq → IP3/DAG
  • Gs → increased cAMP

Correct Answer: Gs → increased cAMP

Q5. Prolactin secretion from the anterior pituitary is physiologically inhibited by which hypothalamic factor?

  • Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
  • Dopamine (prolactin-inhibiting factor)
  • Somatostatin
  • Growth hormone-releasing hormone (GHRH)

Correct Answer: Dopamine (prolactin-inhibiting factor)

Q6. Which somatostatin analogue is commonly used to treat acromegaly and neuroendocrine tumors?

  • Somatropin
  • Octreotide
  • Cosyntropin
  • Leuprolide

Correct Answer: Octreotide

Q7. The recombinant human growth hormone preparation used for GH deficiency is called:

  • Filgrastim
  • Somatropin
  • Octreotide
  • Cabergoline

Correct Answer: Somatropin

Q8. First-line pharmacologic therapy for a symptomatic prolactinoma is usually:

  • Transsphenoidal surgery
  • Cabergoline (dopamine D2 agonist)
  • Somatostatin analogue
  • Glucocorticoid replacement

Correct Answer: Cabergoline (dopamine D2 agonist)

Q9. Cosyntropin, an ACTH analogue, is primarily used clinically to:

  • Shrink pituitary adenomas
  • Diagnose adrenal insufficiency by stimulating cortisol release
  • Treat hypothyroidism
  • Suppress prolactin secretion

Correct Answer: Diagnose adrenal insufficiency by stimulating cortisol release

Q10. Administration of a GnRH agonist (e.g., leuprolide) produces which short- and long-term effects on gonadotropin secretion?

  • Immediate suppression with sustained increase
  • Initial flare of LH/FSH followed by receptor downregulation and suppression
  • No change in gonadotropin levels
  • Permanent enhancement of LH/FSH secretion

Correct Answer: Initial flare of LH/FSH followed by receptor downregulation and suppression

Q11. Compared with GnRH agonists, GnRH antagonists (e.g., degarelix) differ by:

  • Causing a prolonged initial flare before suppression
  • Directly blocking GnRH receptors and producing rapid suppression without flare
  • Increasing LH secretion chronically
  • Stimulating prolactin release

Correct Answer: Directly blocking GnRH receptors and producing rapid suppression without flare

Q12. A common adverse effect of long-term somatostatin analogue therapy is:

  • Renal stone formation
  • Development of cholelithiasis (gallstones)
  • Hyperthyroidism
  • Excessive hair growth

Correct Answer: Development of cholelithiasis (gallstones)

Q13. Peptide anterior pituitary hormones and their analogues are usually administered by which route?

  • Oral tablet
  • Transdermal patch
  • Parenteral routes (subcutaneous or intramuscular)
  • Inhalation

Correct Answer: Parenteral routes (subcutaneous or intramuscular)

Q14. The best biochemical parameter to monitor efficacy of GH therapy is:

  • Serum cortisol
  • IGF-1 (insulin-like growth factor-1) levels
  • Serum TSH
  • Serum prolactin

Correct Answer: IGF-1 (insulin-like growth factor-1) levels

Q15. Which anterior pituitary hormone is structurally most similar to growth hormone?

  • TSH
  • Prolactin
  • ACTH
  • FSH

Correct Answer: Prolactin

Q16. The therapeutic action of cabergoline in hyperprolactinemia is mediated by:

  • Antagonism of dopamine D2 receptors
  • Agonism of dopamine D2 receptors on lactotrophs
  • Activation of somatostatin receptors
  • Stimulation of TSH receptors

Correct Answer: Agonism of dopamine D2 receptors on lactotrophs

Q17. Bromocriptine is primarily indicated in which pituitary-related condition?

  • Acromegaly as first-line monotherapy
  • Hyperprolactinemia and suppression of lactation
  • Primary hypothyroidism
  • Adrenal insufficiency

Correct Answer: Hyperprolactinemia and suppression of lactation

Q18. Somatostatin analogues are useful in acromegaly because they:

  • Increase GH receptor expression in liver
  • Directly antagonize IGF-1 activity
  • Inhibit GH secretion from pituitary somatotrophs
  • Stimulate prolactin release to counteract GH

Correct Answer: Inhibit GH secretion from pituitary somatotrophs

Q19. Laron dwarfism is characterized by which endocrine defect?

  • GH deficiency with low GH and low IGF-1
  • GH receptor mutation causing high GH and low IGF-1
  • Excessive IGF-1 production
  • Primary hypothyroidism causing short stature

Correct Answer: GH receptor mutation causing high GH and low IGF-1

Q20. A notable metabolic adverse effect of therapeutic growth hormone administration is:

  • Hypoglycemia due to increased insulin sensitivity
  • Hyperglycemia and insulin resistance
  • Severe hyponatremia
  • Hyperkalemia

Correct Answer: Hyperglycemia and insulin resistance

Q21. TSH stimulates thyroid hormone synthesis primarily via which intracellular pathway?

  • Activation of JAK-STAT pathway
  • Inhibition of adenylate cyclase
  • Gs-mediated increase in cAMP in thyroid follicular cells
  • Opening of ligand-gated ion channels

Correct Answer: Gs-mediated increase in cAMP in thyroid follicular cells

Q22. ACTH acts mainly on which zone of the adrenal cortex to stimulate cortisol synthesis?

  • Zona glomerulosa
  • Zona fasciculata
  • Zona reticularis only
  • Adrenal medulla

Correct Answer: Zona fasciculata

Q23. The screening test commonly used to evaluate suspected Cushing’s syndrome is:

  • High-dose ACTH stimulation test
  • Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test
  • TRH stimulation test
  • Insulin tolerance test

Correct Answer: Low-dose dexamethasone suppression test

Q24. Excess growth hormone secretion prior to epiphyseal closure causes which clinical condition?

  • Acromegaly
  • Gigantism
  • Dwarfism
  • Hypopituitarism

Correct Answer: Gigantism

Q25. Which somatostatin analogue is available in long-acting depot formulations suitable for monthly dosing?

  • Short-acting native somatostatin
  • Lanreotide autogel (long-acting)
  • Somatropin
  • Cosyntropin

Correct Answer: Lanreotide autogel (long-acting)

Q26. A major contraindication to initiating growth hormone therapy is:

  • Active malignancy or history of active cancer
  • Short stature due to GH deficiency
  • Turner syndrome without tumors
  • Chronic renal failure-associated growth delay

Correct Answer: Active malignancy or history of active cancer

Q27. In males, persistent hyperprolactinemia commonly causes which reproductive effect?

  • Increased libido and fertility
  • Decreased GnRH and LH secretion leading to hypogonadism and infertility
  • Enhanced spermatogenesis
  • Elevated testosterone levels

Correct Answer: Decreased GnRH and LH secretion leading to hypogonadism and infertility

Q28. Why are GnRH agonists effective in treating advanced prostate cancer?

  • They increase prolactin, which inhibits tumor growth
  • They cause sustained downregulation of pituitary GnRH receptors and reduce testosterone production
  • They directly block androgen receptors in tumor cells
  • They stimulate LH and FSH to toxic levels for cancer cells

Correct Answer: They cause sustained downregulation of pituitary GnRH receptors and reduce testosterone production

Q29. In a cosyntropin stimulation test, a blunted cortisol response most likely indicates:

  • Secondary hypothyroidism
  • Primary adrenal insufficiency or adrenal failure
  • Normal adrenal function
  • Hyperaldosteronism

Correct Answer: Primary adrenal insufficiency or adrenal failure

Q30. Which class of drugs can antagonize the therapeutic effect of dopamine agonists used for hyperprolactinemia?

  • Somatostatin analogues
  • Dopamine antagonists such as typical antipsychotics (e.g., haloperidol)
  • Beta-blockers
  • ACE inhibitors

Correct Answer: Dopamine antagonists such as typical antipsychotics (e.g., haloperidol)

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