Anticoagulants MCQs With Answer

Anticoagulants MCQs With Answer are essential revision tools for B. Pharm students to master clinical pharmacology of anticoagulant drugs. This concise, keyword-rich introduction covers mechanisms of action, drug classes (warfarin, heparin, LMWH, fondaparinux, DOACs), monitoring (INR, aPTT, anti-Xa), dosing principles, adverse effects (bleeding, HIT, osteoporosis), drug interactions, and reversal agents (vitamin K, PCC, protamine, idarucizumab, andexanet alfa). Understanding pharmacokinetics, renal/hepatic adjustments, and indications (VTE, AF, DVT, PE, perioperative prophylaxis) is crucial for safe therapeutics. These focused MCQs will deepen your knowledge and clinical reasoning in anticoagulant pharmacotherapy. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which anticoagulant directly inhibits thrombin (factor IIa) by binding to its active site?

  • Warfarin
  • Dabigatran
  • Rivaroxaban
  • Fondaparinux

Correct Answer: Dabigatran

Q2. Which laboratory test is most appropriate for monitoring warfarin therapy?

  • aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time)
  • INR (international normalized ratio)
  • Anti-factor Xa assay
  • Platelet count

Correct Answer: INR (international normalized ratio)

Q3. Protamine sulfate is an effective antidote for which anticoagulant?

  • Apixaban
  • Unfractionated heparin
  • Warfarin
  • Dabigatran

Correct Answer: Unfractionated heparin

Q4. Which drug is a synthetic pentasaccharide that selectively inhibits factor Xa via antithrombin?

  • Enoxaparin
  • Fondaparinux
  • Warfarin
  • Argatroban

Correct Answer: Fondaparinux

Q5. A patient on warfarin develops major bleeding. Which agent provides the fastest reversal of anticoagulation?

  • Oral vitamin K (phytonadione)
  • Fresh frozen plasma
  • Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)
  • Protamine sulfate

Correct Answer: Prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)

Q6. Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) type II is mediated by antibodies against which complex?

  • Platelet alpha granules
  • Heparin–platelet factor 4 (PF4)
  • Fibrin–thrombin complex
  • Factor VIII–von Willebrand factor

Correct Answer: Heparin–platelet factor 4 (PF4)

Q7. Which oral anticoagulant is highly protein-bound and has nearly complete oral bioavailability?

  • Warfarin
  • Dabigatran
  • Enoxaparin
  • Fondaparinux

Correct Answer: Warfarin

Q8. Which direct oral anticoagulant primarily inhibits factor Xa?

  • Dabigatran
  • Apixaban
  • Heparin
  • Warfarin

Correct Answer: Apixaban

Q9. Which monitoring test is most useful to assess the anticoagulant effect of low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) in special populations?

  • INR
  • aPTT
  • Anti-factor Xa assay
  • Bleeding time

Correct Answer: Anti-factor Xa assay

Q10. Which genetic polymorphism most influences warfarin dose variability?

  • CYP3A4 variants
  • VKORC1 and CYP2C9 polymorphisms
  • G6PD deficiency
  • Factor V Leiden mutation

Correct Answer: VKORC1 and CYP2C9 polymorphisms

Q11. Which anticoagulant is contraindicated in pregnancy because of teratogenicity and fetal bleeding risk?

  • Unfractionated heparin
  • Low molecular weight heparin
  • Warfarin
  • Fondaparinux

Correct Answer: Warfarin

Q12. Idarucizumab is a specific reversal agent for which anticoagulant?

  • Rivaroxaban
  • Apixaban
  • Dabigatran
  • Warfarin

Correct Answer: Dabigatran

Q13. Which adverse effect is most specifically associated with long-term unfractionated heparin therapy?

  • Hepatotoxicity
  • Osteoporosis
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Pulmonary fibrosis

Correct Answer: Osteoporosis

Q14. A patient with severe renal impairment (CrCl <15 mL/min) requires anticoagulation. Which agent is generally least preferred because it is predominantly renally cleared?

  • Warfarin
  • Dabigatran
  • Unfractionated heparin
  • Apixaban (at adjusted dose)

Correct Answer: Dabigatran

Q15. Which statement about low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) versus unfractionated heparin (UFH) is correct?

  • LMWH requires routine aPTT monitoring in all patients
  • UFH has more predictable bioavailability after subcutaneous injection
  • LMWH has longer half-life and more predictable anticoagulant response
  • UFH is contraindicated in pregnancy while LMWH is preferred

Correct Answer: LMWH has longer half-life and more predictable anticoagulant response

Q16. Which laboratory test is prolonged in the presence of direct thrombin inhibitors like dabigatran?

  • Prothrombin time (PT) only
  • Thrombin time (TT)
  • Platelet function assay
  • Fibrinogen level

Correct Answer: Thrombin time (TT)

Q17. Which anticoagulant’s activity can be reversed by andexanet alfa?

  • Dabigatran
  • Rivaroxaban
  • Warfarin
  • Heparin

Correct Answer: Rivaroxaban

Q18. Which mechanism best describes warfarin’s anticoagulant action?

  • Direct inhibition of factor Xa active site
  • Potentiation of antithrombin III
  • Inhibition of vitamin K epoxide reductase, reducing gamma-carboxylation of clotting factors
  • Direct thrombin binding and inactivation

Correct Answer: Inhibition of vitamin K epoxide reductase, reducing gamma-carboxylation of clotting factors

Q19. For perioperative thromboprophylaxis after major orthopedic surgery, which anticoagulant is commonly used subcutaneously?

  • Warfarin
  • Low molecular weight heparin (enoxaparin)
  • Apixaban only IV
  • Idarucizumab

Correct Answer: Low molecular weight heparin (enoxaparin)

Q20. Which drug interaction increases warfarin’s anticoagulant effect by inhibiting CYP2C9?

  • Rifampicin
  • Carbamazepine
  • Metronidazole
  • Phenytoin

Correct Answer: Metronidazole

Q21. Which parameter defines therapeutic INR range for most indications like atrial fibrillation and venous thromboembolism?

  • INR 1.0–1.5
  • INR 2.0–3.0
  • INR 3.5–4.5
  • INR <1.5

Correct Answer: INR 2.0–3.0

Q22. Which anticoagulant is administered intravenously and used in HIT as an alternative to heparin?

  • Argatroban
  • Warfarin
  • Edoxaban
  • Enoxaparin

Correct Answer: Argatroban

Q23. Which feature distinguishes direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) from warfarin?

  • DOACs require frequent INR monitoring
  • DOACs have predictable pharmacokinetics and generally do not require routine monitoring
  • DOACs are teratogenic like warfarin
  • DOACs act by inhibiting vitamin K epoxide reductase

Correct Answer: DOACs have predictable pharmacokinetics and generally do not require routine monitoring

Q24. Which anticoagulant’s absorption is significantly affected by acidic capsule formulation and requires specific storage to prevent moisture exposure?

  • Dabigatran etexilate
  • Rivaroxaban
  • Warfarin sodium
  • Enoxaparin

Correct Answer: Dabigatran etexilate

Q25. In a patient with mechanical heart valve, which anticoagulant is preferred?

  • Dabigatran
  • Warfarin
  • Rivaroxaban
  • Low molecular weight heparin long-term

Correct Answer: Warfarin

Q26. Which adverse event is most suggestive of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) rather than simple heparin-related bleeding?

  • Progressive mucosal bleeding
  • Sudden drop in platelet count with new thrombosis
  • Prolonged aPTT without thrombocytopenia
  • Isolated epistaxis

Correct Answer: Sudden drop in platelet count with new thrombosis

Q27. Which anticoagulant requires dose adjustment based on creatinine clearance and is partially hepatically metabolized via CYP3A4?

  • Warfarin
  • Apixaban
  • Unfractionated heparin
  • Fondaparinux

Correct Answer: Apixaban

Q28. Which test is least useful for assessing anticoagulation due to a factor Xa inhibitor like apixaban?

  • Anti-factor Xa calibrated assay
  • PT/INR (may be variably prolonged)
  • Specific anti-Xa assay calibrated for the drug
  • Bleeding time

Correct Answer: Bleeding time

Q29. Which anticoagulant effect is primarily reversed by administration of vitamin K (phytonadione)?

  • Heparin-induced anticoagulation
  • Warfarin-induced reduction of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors
  • Dabigatran direct thrombin inhibition
  • Fondaparinux factor Xa inhibition

Correct Answer: Warfarin-induced reduction of vitamin K–dependent clotting factors

Q30. Which practice is recommended when switching a patient from warfarin to a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)?

  • Stop warfarin and start DOAC immediately regardless of INR
  • Switch when INR is within or below a drug-specific threshold (e.g., INR ≤2.0 for many DOACs)
  • Overlap warfarin and DOAC for 7 days always
  • Increase warfarin dose before starting DOAC

Correct Answer: Switch when INR is within or below a drug-specific threshold (e.g., INR ≤2.0 for many DOACs)

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