Hemodynamics and electrophysiology of heart MCQs With Answer

Introduction: Hemodynamics and electrophysiology form the foundation of cardiac physiology for B. Pharm students. This topic covers cardiac output, stroke volume, preload, afterload, vascular resistance, pressure-volume loops, and the molecular basis of action potentials in pacemaker and ventricular cells. Key concepts include ion channels (Na+, Ca2+, K+), conduction pathways (SA node, AV node, Purkinje), ECG interpretation, refractory periods, arrhythmia mechanisms, and pharmacologic modulation by antiarrhythmics and inotropes. Mastery of these principles links drug action to cardiac function, aiding rational therapeutics. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. What primarily determines stroke volume under normal physiologic conditions?

  • Heart rate
  • Preload (end-diastolic volume)
  • Systemic vascular resistance
  • Atrial fibrillation

Correct Answer: Preload (end-diastolic volume)

Q2. Which phase of the ventricular action potential corresponds to rapid repolarization?

  • Phase 0
  • Phase 1
  • Phase 2
  • Phase 3

Correct Answer: Phase 3

Q3. The pacemaker current (If) that contributes to spontaneous depolarization in the SA node is primarily carried by which ions?

  • Sodium and potassium
  • Calcium only
  • Sodium only
  • Chloride and bicarbonate

Correct Answer: Sodium and potassium

Q4. On a pressure-volume loop, an increase in afterload most directly shifts which part of the loop?

  • Rightward shift of end-diastolic volume
  • Upward and leftward shift of end-systolic pressure
  • Downward shift of the isovolumetric contraction line
  • Flattening of the diastolic filling curve

Correct Answer: Upward and leftward shift of end-systolic pressure

Q5. Which ECG interval primarily reflects atrioventricular (AV) conduction time?

  • QRS duration
  • PR interval
  • QT interval
  • ST segment

Correct Answer: PR interval

Q6. Which ion channel blockade is the main mechanism of Class III antiarrhythmic drugs?

  • Fast sodium channel blockade
  • Beta-adrenergic receptor blockade
  • Delayed rectifier potassium channel blockade
  • Calcium channel T-type blockade

Correct Answer: Delayed rectifier potassium channel blockade

Q7. In ventricular myocytes, which channel predominates during the plateau (phase 2) of the action potential?

  • Fast sodium channels
  • L-type calcium channels
  • Inward rectifier potassium channels
  • Transient outward potassium channels

Correct Answer: L-type calcium channels

Q8. The Frank–Starling law describes the relationship between:

  • Afterload and contractility
  • Preload and stroke volume
  • Heart rate and myocardial oxygen consumption
  • Systemic vascular resistance and cardiac output

Correct Answer: Preload and stroke volume

Q9. Which parameter is a direct clinical estimate of left ventricular contractility?

  • End-diastolic volume
  • Maximum dP/dt during isovolumetric contraction
  • Central venous pressure
  • Pulse pressure

Correct Answer: Maximum dP/dt during isovolumetric contraction

Q10. Which change on ECG is most characteristic of acute transmural myocardial ischemia?

  • PR segment depression
  • ST segment elevation
  • Prolonged QT without ST change
  • Low voltage QRS only

Correct Answer: ST segment elevation

Q11. Which law explains how wall tension increases with chamber radius and pressure, contributing to myocardial oxygen demand?

  • Frank–Starling law
  • Laplace’s law
  • Bernoulli’s principle
  • Ohm’s law

Correct Answer: Laplace’s law

Q12. Which of the following best describes the effective refractory period (ERP) in cardiac tissue?

  • Time during which a stronger-than-normal stimulus produces a normal action potential
  • Interval when heart is completely electrically silent
  • Period when a new action potential cannot be initiated regardless of stimulus strength
  • Time when only atrial tissue is refractory

Correct Answer: Period when a new action potential cannot be initiated regardless of stimulus strength

Q13. Which ion exchanger or pump is crucial for removing cytosolic Ca2+ during diastolic relaxation of cardiomyocytes?

  • Sodium-calcium exchanger (NCX) and SERCA pump
  • Voltage-gated sodium channel
  • Na+/K+ ATPase only
  • Cl−/HCO3− antiporter

Correct Answer: Sodium-calcium exchanger (NCX) and SERCA pump

Q14. A shortened PR interval with a delta wave on ECG suggests which condition?

  • AV nodal block
  • Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome (pre-excitation)
  • Hyperkalemia
  • Bundle branch block

Correct Answer: Wolff–Parkinson–White syndrome (pre-excitation)

Q15. Which autonomic effect increases heart rate and increases conduction velocity through the AV node?

  • Increased vagal tone
  • Increased sympathetic tone via beta-1 receptors
  • Increased parasympathetic via muscarinic receptors
  • Increased baroreceptor firing

Correct Answer: Increased sympathetic tone via beta-1 receptors

Q16. Which measurement is used to calculate mean arterial pressure (MAP) approximately?

  • (Systolic + Diastolic) / 2
  • Diastolic + 1/3(Systolic − Diastolic)
  • Systolic − Diastolic
  • Pulse pressure × heart rate

Correct Answer: Diastolic + 1/3(Systolic − Diastolic)

Q17. Re-entry is a common arrhythmia mechanism. Which condition favors re-entry circuits?

  • Uniform conduction velocity and short refractory period
  • Region with unidirectional block and slowed conduction around an excitable pathway
  • Complete homogenous refractoriness across tissue
  • Isolated SA node automaticity only

Correct Answer: Region with unidirectional block and slowed conduction around an excitable pathway

Q18. Beta-blockers reduce myocardial oxygen demand primarily by which mechanisms?

  • Increasing heart rate and contractility
  • Reducing heart rate, contractility, and blood pressure
  • Vasodilation of coronary microcirculation only
  • Blocking L-type calcium channels in cardiomyocytes

Correct Answer: Reducing heart rate, contractility, and blood pressure

Q19. Which ECG change is commonly seen with hyperkalemia as it progresses?

  • ST elevation followed by Q waves
  • Peaked T waves, then widened QRS, then sine-wave pattern
  • Prolonged PR interval then narrow QRS complex
  • Inverted P waves only

Correct Answer: Peaked T waves, then widened QRS, then sine-wave pattern

Q20. Class I antiarrhythmics act primarily by blocking which target?

  • Beta-adrenergic receptors
  • Voltage-gated sodium channels
  • Delayed rectifier potassium channels
  • L-type calcium channels

Correct Answer: Voltage-gated sodium channels

Q21. Which vessel contributes most to total peripheral resistance (TPR) under resting conditions?

  • Large elastic arteries
  • Arterioles
  • Capillaries
  • Venules

Correct Answer: Arterioles

Q22. Which statement best describes the role of the AV node during rapid atrial arrhythmias?

  • It always conducts 1:1 to the ventricles
  • It filters impulses and can limit ventricular rate due to its slow conduction and longer refractory period
  • It speeds up conduction to protect ventricles
  • It generates new pacemaker activity faster than SA node

Correct Answer: It filters impulses and can limit ventricular rate due to its slow conduction and longer refractory period

Q23. In heart failure with reduced ejection fraction, which compensatory change initially preserves cardiac output?

  • Decreased preload via venodilation
  • Increased sympathetic activation raising heart rate and contractility
  • Primary decrease in afterload
  • Immediate myocardial regeneration

Correct Answer: Increased sympathetic activation raising heart rate and contractility

Q24. Which component of the ECG corresponds to ventricular depolarization?

  • P wave
  • QRS complex
  • T wave
  • U wave

Correct Answer: QRS complex

Q25. Cardiac output equals:

  • Stroke volume × heart rate
  • Mean arterial pressure × systemic vascular resistance
  • Preload × afterload
  • Pulse pressure × ejection fraction

Correct Answer: Stroke volume × heart rate

Q26. Which ion current is primarily responsible for the rapid upstroke (phase 0) in ventricular myocytes?

  • Slow inward calcium current (T-type)
  • Fast sodium current (INa)
  • Funny current (If)
  • Delayed rectifier potassium current

Correct Answer: Fast sodium current (INa)

Q27. Which physiologic change will increase venous return to the heart?

  • Reduced blood volume
  • Increased intrathoracic pressure during positive-pressure ventilation
  • Skeletal muscle pump during exercise
  • Venous dilation due to histamine release

Correct Answer: Skeletal muscle pump during exercise

Q28. Torsades de pointes is linked to prolongation of which ECG interval?

  • PR interval
  • QRS duration
  • QT interval
  • ST segment only

Correct Answer: QT interval

Q29. Which of the following increases contractility (positive inotropy) via intracellular signaling?

  • Beta-1 stimulation increasing cAMP and L-type Ca2+ channel activity
  • Muscarinic M2 activation decreasing cAMP
  • Blockade of SERCA function
  • Inhibition of RyR channel opening

Correct Answer: Beta-1 stimulation increasing cAMP and L-type Ca2+ channel activity

Q30. Which description best fits the sinoatrial (SA) node compared with ventricular myocardium?

  • Faster upstroke velocity and more negative resting membrane potential
  • Slower upstroke velocity, more positive maximum diastolic potential, and automaticity due to If and Ca2+ currents
  • Identical ion channel complement and action potential shape
  • No influence of autonomic neurotransmitters

Correct Answer: Slower upstroke velocity, more positive maximum diastolic potential, and automaticity due to If and Ca2+ currents

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