Production procedure for parenteral products MCQs With Answer

Production procedure for parenteral products MCQs With Answer is a focused study resource for B. Pharm students covering sterile manufacturing, aseptic processing, sterilization methods, filtration, container-closure systems, and GMP-compliant cleanroom operations. This introduction explains critical steps—raw material control, formulation, ISO-classified environment, sterilization validation (terminal sterilization vs. aseptic fill), lyophilization, in-process monitoring, and quality control tests—emphasizing validation, documentation, and contamination control. Understanding microbial limits, particulate control, environmental monitoring, and equipment qualification is essential for safe parenteral production. These MCQs reinforce core concepts, problem-solving, and regulatory expectations to prepare you for exams and industrial practice. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. Which sterilization method is preferred for heat-sensitive aqueous injectable formulations to achieve sterility without thermal degradation?

  • Autoclaving at 121°C
  • Dry heat sterilization at 160°C
  • Gamma irradiation
  • Sterile filtration through 0.22 μm membrane

Correct Answer: Sterile filtration through 0.22 μm membrane

Q2. What is the standard pore size of a sterilizing-grade membrane filter commonly used for terminal sterile filtration of parenteral solutions?

  • 0.45 μm
  • 0.22 μm
  • 0.10 μm
  • 1.2 μm

Correct Answer: 0.22 μm

Q3. In aseptic processing, what is the primary purpose of a media fill (process simulation) study?

  • To validate chemical compatibility of vials
  • To demonstrate the sterility of the final product after terminal sterilization
  • To simulate production using growth media and validate aseptic technique and process controls
  • To test endotoxin levels of the product

Correct Answer: To simulate production using growth media and validate aseptic technique and process controls

Q4. Which of the following is defined as the probability of a single viable microorganism occurring on a product unit after sterilization?

  • D-value
  • SAL (Sterility Assurance Level)
  • Z-value
  • F-value

Correct Answer: SAL (Sterility Assurance Level)

Q5. Which biological indicator organism is commonly used to validate steam autoclave sterilization?

  • Bacillus subtilis spores
  • Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores
  • Clostridium botulinum spores
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa vegetative cells

Correct Answer: Geobacillus stearothermophilus spores

Q6. Which cleanroom classification corresponds to Grade A (EU GMP) for the critical zone during aseptic operations?

  • ISO 8
  • ISO 7
  • ISO 5
  • ISO 3

Correct Answer: ISO 5

Q7. What is the main advantage of terminal sterilization over aseptic filling?

  • Lower equipment cost
  • Lower regulatory expectations
  • Higher sterility assurance due to sterilization of final sealed product
  • Requires no validation

Correct Answer: Higher sterility assurance due to sterilization of final sealed product

Q8. Which test is specifically used to detect bacterial endotoxins in parenteral products?

  • Sterility test (pharmaceutical)
  • Macroscopic particulate test
  • Limulus Amebocyte Lysate (LAL) test
  • Culture-based environmental monitoring

Correct Answer: Limulus Amebocyte Lysate (LAL) test

Q9. Which water type is required for final formulation and washing of parenteral products in many pharmacopeia standards?

  • Drinking water
  • Purified water (PW)
  • Water for Injection (WFI)
  • Distilled water

Correct Answer: Water for Injection (WFI)

Q10. Which parameter is most critical to monitor in a cleanroom to control airborne particulates?

  • pH of cleaning agents
  • Airborne particle counts
  • Color of surfaces
  • Glove tensile strength

Correct Answer: Airborne particle counts

Q11. For aseptic filling, which of the following is a key function of HEPA filters in the HVAC system?

  • Increase room humidity
  • Remove particles ≥0.3 μm with high efficiency
  • Sterilize liquids
  • Heat the incoming air

Correct Answer: Remove particles ≥0.3 μm with high efficiency

Q12. Which sterilization method uses high-energy photons and is useful for prefilled syringes and single-use components but may cause material degradation?

  • Dry heat sterilization
  • Ethylene oxide sterilization
  • Gamma irradiation
  • Steam sterilization

Correct Answer: Gamma irradiation

Q13. What is the purpose of filter integrity testing (e.g., bubble point) after sterile filtration?

  • To measure endotoxin level
  • To confirm filter pore structure and that no breach occurred
  • To assess sterility test kinetics
  • To determine viscosity of the solution

Correct Answer: To confirm filter pore structure and that no breach occurred

Q14. During lyophilization (freeze-drying), which step directly removes bound water by sublimation?

  • Freezing
  • Primary drying
  • Secondary drying
  • Sealing

Correct Answer: Primary drying

Q15. In parenteral manufacturing, what is a common acceptance criterion for sterility testing using the USP sterility test?

  • No turbidity observed in all test vessels after specified incubation
  • pH must be neutral in growth media
  • All test vessels must show turbidity
  • Only one vessel may show turbidity

Correct Answer: No turbidity observed in all test vessels after specified incubation

Q16. Which of the following describes the D-value in sterilization science?

  • Time required to reduce microbial population by 90% under specified conditions
  • Temperature required to kill all microorganisms instantly
  • Concentration of disinfectant needed for inactivation
  • Pressure differential across a filter

Correct Answer: Time required to reduce microbial population by 90% under specified conditions

Q17. During sterile production, what is the main role of gowning procedures for operators?

  • To identify staff by role
  • To reduce operator contribution of particles and microorganisms to the critical area
  • To increase production speed
  • To replace cleaning validation

Correct Answer: To reduce operator contribution of particles and microorganisms to the critical area

Q18. What is the main difference between bacteriostasis and fungistasis testing in sterility assays?

  • Bacteriostasis/fungistasis testing evaluates whether product inhibits growth of test organisms and could mask sterility results
  • Bacteriostasis checks pH only
  • Fungistasis uses different incubation temperatures only
  • They are irrelevant to parenteral products

Correct Answer: Bacteriostasis/fungistasis testing evaluates whether product inhibits growth of test organisms and could mask sterility results

Q19. Which parameter is commonly validated during aseptic filling to ensure consistent fill volume and prevent contamination?

  • Fill volume accuracy, container-closure integrity, and environmental controls
  • Color of the product
  • Employee handwriting legibility
  • Packaging artwork quality

Correct Answer: Fill volume accuracy, container-closure integrity, and environmental controls

Q20. What is the typical temperature range for depyrogenation by dry heat for glassware to destroy endotoxins?

  • 121°C for 15 minutes
  • 160–180°C for 1–3 hours
  • 60°C for 30 minutes
  • 100°C for 5 minutes

Correct Answer: 160–180°C for 1–3 hours

Q21. Which of the following is NOT a primary objective of GMP in parenteral production?

  • Ensuring product quality, safety, and efficacy
  • Controlling contamination and maintaining documentation
  • Maximizing profit at the expense of quality
  • Validating processes and equipment

Correct Answer: Maximizing profit at the expense of quality

Q22. What is the primary reason multi-dose vials often include preservatives?

  • To improve viscosity
  • To prevent microbial growth after repeated access
  • To enhance color stability
  • To reduce production cost

Correct Answer: To prevent microbial growth after repeated access

Q23. Which environmental monitoring method actively samples air to count viable microorganisms?

  • Settle plates (passive monitoring)
  • Passive particle counters
  • Active air sampling using impaction or filtration devices
  • Visual inspection only

Correct Answer: Active air sampling using impaction or filtration devices

Q24. What does container-closure integrity (CCI) testing verify for sterile parenterals?

  • That labels are correctly applied
  • The ability of the sealed container system to maintain sterility and prevent ingress of contaminants
  • The chemical potency of the drug
  • Elution of extractables only

Correct Answer: The ability of the sealed container system to maintain sterility and prevent ingress of contaminants

Q25. Which critical control point is essential during sterile filtration to prevent bacterial passage through the filter?

  • Using filters previously used for another drug
  • Maintaining appropriate differential pressure and avoiding filter overloading
  • Using oversized filter housings
  • Skipping filter integrity test

Correct Answer: Maintaining appropriate differential pressure and avoiding filter overloading

Q26. Which validation demonstrates that a sterilization cycle inactivates a specific biological indicator under defined conditions?

  • Process capability study
  • Sterility test of the final batch only
  • Biological Indicator (BI) validation and kill study
  • Water system validation

Correct Answer: Biological Indicator (BI) validation and kill study

Q27. What is the main regulatory expectation when choosing terminal sterilization over aseptic processing?

  • No documentation required
  • Demonstration that the product retains quality and efficacy after the sterilization cycle and that validation is adequate
  • Lower environmental monitoring requirements
  • Shorter shelf-life without studies

Correct Answer: Demonstration that the product retains quality and efficacy after the sterilization cycle and that validation is adequate

Q28. Which of the following is an indicator of effective environmental cleaning and disinfection programs in sterile production areas?

  • High variability in particle counts
  • Consistently low viable and non-viable counts and trend analysis within limits
  • Uncontrolled traffic flow
  • Lack of cleaning records

Correct Answer: Consistently low viable and non-viable counts and trend analysis within limits

Q29. Which preservative is commonly used in some multi-dose parenteral formulations and is known for bacteriostatic activity?

  • Benzyl alcohol
  • Sodium chloride
  • Glycerol
  • Distilled water

Correct Answer: Benzyl alcohol

Q30. Which document establishes the approved manufacturing steps, parameters, and quality attributes for producing a parenteral product?

  • Batch manufacturing record (BMR) and validated standard operating procedures (SOPs)
  • Employee handbook
  • Marketing brochure
  • Invoice records

Correct Answer: Batch manufacturing record (BMR) and validated standard operating procedures (SOPs)

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