Introduction: This concise guide on General anesthetics MCQs With Answer helps B. Pharm students deepen understanding of pharmacology, mechanisms of action, pharmacokinetics, clinical uses, side effects and anesthesia monitoring. Focused keywords include general anesthetics, inhalational agents, intravenous agents, MAC, blood–gas partition coefficient, GABA‑A, NMDA, malignant hyperthermia and perioperative considerations. Questions are designed to reinforce core concepts such as induction and recovery, drug metabolism, hemodynamic effects and safe clinical practice. Clear explanations and varied scenarios will prepare pharmacy students for exams and clinical reasoning. Now let’s test your knowledge with 30 MCQs on this topic.
Q1. Which concept is used to compare the potency of inhalational anesthetics?
- Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)
- Blood/gas partition coefficient
- Oil/gas partition coefficient
- Context-sensitive half-time
Correct Answer: Minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)
Q2. A lower blood/gas partition coefficient for an inhalational anesthetic results in which clinical effect?
- Slower induction and slower recovery
- Faster induction and faster recovery
- Increased potency (lower MAC)
- Greater metabolism by liver enzymes
Correct Answer: Faster induction and faster recovery
Q3. MAC is best defined as:
- The concentration producing unconsciousness in 50% of patients
- The concentration preventing movement in response to surgical incision in 50% of patients
- The plasma concentration that causes amnesia in 90% of patients
- The alveolar concentration that causes apnea in 50% of patients
Correct Answer: The concentration preventing movement in response to surgical incision in 50% of patients
Q4. Which inhalational anesthetic has a well-known association with severe hepatotoxicity (halothane hepatitis)?
- Isoflurane
- Sevoflurane
- Halothane
- Desflurane
Correct Answer: Halothane
Q5. Which inhalational agent has the lowest blood/gas partition coefficient and therefore very rapid changes in depth of anesthesia?
- Halothane
- Isoflurane
- Sevoflurane
- Desflurane
Correct Answer: Desflurane
Q6. Propofol produces anesthesia mainly by which mechanism?
- NMDA receptor antagonism
- Enhancement of GABA-A receptor-mediated chloride influx
- Blocking voltage-gated sodium channels
- Inhibition of monoamine oxidase
Correct Answer: Enhancement of GABA-A receptor-mediated chloride influx
Q7. Ketamine’s primary anesthetic mechanism involves:
- Agonism at GABA-A receptors
- NMDA receptor antagonism
- Opioid receptor agonism
- Alpha-2 adrenergic agonism
Correct Answer: NMDA receptor antagonism
Q8. Which intravenous induction agent is most associated with adrenal suppression and myoclonus?
- Thiopental
- Etomidate
- Propofol
- Ketamine
Correct Answer: Etomidate
Q9. Which IV anesthetic is known for rapid recovery, antiemetic properties and significant hypotension risk at induction?
- Thiopental
- Etomidate
- Propofol
- Methohexital
Correct Answer: Propofol
Q10. Malignant hyperthermia is most commonly triggered by which combination?
- Propofol infusion and succinylcholine
- Volatile inhalational agents and succinylcholine
- Nitrous oxide and opioids
- Barbiturates and non-depolarizing muscle relaxants
Correct Answer: Volatile inhalational agents and succinylcholine
Q11. The first-line treatment for malignant hyperthermia is:
- Dantrolene sodium
- Sodium bicarbonate
- Haloperidol
- Diazepam
Correct Answer: Dantrolene sodium
Q12. Which statement about nitrous oxide is correct?
- It has very high potency with MAC < 0.5%
- It is highly soluble with a high blood/gas partition coefficient
- It provides analgesia, has low blood solubility and a very high MAC (>100%)
- It is extensively metabolized by the liver
Correct Answer: It provides analgesia, has low blood solubility and a very high MAC (>100%)
Q13. Which inhalational anesthetic has been associated with fluoride-induced renal injury due to metabolism to inorganic fluoride?
- Isoflurane
- Sevoflurane
- Desflurane
- Nitrous oxide
Correct Answer: Sevoflurane
Q14. Which opioid has the shortest context-sensitive half-time, making it ideal for infusion with rapid recovery?
- Fentanyl
- Morphine
- Remifentanil
- Sufentanil
Correct Answer: Remifentanil
Q15. Which anesthetic is most likely to increase intracranial pressure and should be used cautiously in patients with raised intracranial pressure?
- Propofol
- Etomidate
- Ketamine
- Thiopental
Correct Answer: Ketamine
Q16. For inhalational induction in uncooperative pediatric patients, which agent is preferred due to low pungency and smooth induction?
- Desflurane
- Isoflurane
- Sevoflurane
- Halothane
Correct Answer: Sevoflurane
Q17. Benzodiazepines facilitate GABAergic transmission primarily by:
- Increasing the duration of chloride channel openings
- Blocking glutamate receptors
- Increasing the frequency of GABA-A receptor chloride channel opening
- Inhibiting GABA synthesis
Correct Answer: Increasing the frequency of GABA-A receptor chloride channel opening
Q18. The rapid recovery seen after a single bolus of thiopental is mainly due to:
- Rapid hepatic metabolism
- Renal excretion
- Redistribution from brain to peripheral tissues
- Plasma ester hydrolysis
Correct Answer: Redistribution from brain to peripheral tissues
Q19. Which anesthetic commonly causes dose-dependent hypotension through both myocardial depression and vasodilation?
- Etomidate
- Ketamine
- Propofol
- Midazolam
Correct Answer: Propofol
Q20. Which induction agent is preferred for hemodynamically unstable patients because it preserves cardiovascular stability?
- Thiopental
- Etomidate
- Propofol
- Methohexital
Correct Answer: Etomidate
Q21. Isoflurane causes which primary cardiovascular effect?
- Marked increase in systemic vascular resistance
- Dose-dependent hypotension due to vasodilation
- Significant tachycardia through sympathetic stimulation
- Severe bradycardia by vagal activation
Correct Answer: Dose-dependent hypotension due to vasodilation
Q22. Emergence delirium in pediatric patients is most frequently associated with which inhalational agent?
- Halothane
- Sevoflurane
- Nitrous oxide
- Isoflurane
Correct Answer: Sevoflurane
Q23. Which monitoring tool provides an EEG-derived index to help assess depth of anesthesia?
- Pulse oximetry
- End-tidal CO2
- Bispectral index (BIS)
- Non-invasive blood pressure
Correct Answer: Bispectral index (BIS)
Q24. Which of the following decreases the MAC of inhalational anesthetics?
- Acute amphetamine intoxication
- Hyperthermia
- Opioid administration
- Chronic alcohol abuse
Correct Answer: Opioid administration
Q25. Metabolism of halogenated volatile anesthetics that contributes to hepatotoxicity is primarily mediated by which cytochrome P450 isoenzyme?
- CYP3A4
- CYP1A2
- CYP2E1
- CYP2D6
Correct Answer: CYP2E1
Q26. The principal molecular target thought to mediate the effects of many volatile anesthetics is:
- Voltage-gated sodium channels
- Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
- GABA-A receptors and related ion channels
- Monoamine transporters
Correct Answer: GABA-A receptors and related ion channels
Q27. Which anesthetic provides significant analgesia but is weak as a sole general anesthetic and is often used as an adjunct?
- Thiopental
- Nitrous oxide
- Propofol
- Etomidate
Correct Answer: Nitrous oxide
Q28. Which anesthetic agent is contraindicated or used with caution in acute porphyria due to porphyrinogenic potential?
- Propofol
- Thiopental
- Etomidate
- Ketamine
Correct Answer: Thiopental
Q29. Which volatile anesthetic is most associated with myocardial sensitization to catecholamine-induced arrhythmias?
- Sevoflurane
- Isoflurane
- Halothane
- Desflurane
Correct Answer: Halothane
Q30. Which intravenous anesthetic provides potent analgesia and is notable for preserving airway reflexes and stimulating the cardiovascular system?
- Propofol
- Etomidate
- Ketamine
- Thiopental
Correct Answer: Ketamine
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