Shock & Anaphylaxis – Initial Management MCQ Quiz | Resuscitation & Emergencies

Welcome, future lifesavers! This quiz is designed to test your knowledge on the critical initial management of shock and anaphylaxis, a cornerstone of emergency medicine. Covering everything from rapid assessment and fluid resuscitation to the correct administration of life-saving drugs like epinephrine, these 25 questions will challenge your understanding of time-sensitive interventions. Sharpen your clinical decision-making skills and prepare for high-pressure scenarios. After submitting your answers, you’ll receive a detailed score report. For your revision, you can also download a PDF copy of all questions and their correct answers. Good luck, and may your clinical acumen shine through!

1. What is the primary physiological goal in the initial management of shock?

2. A 65-year-old male presents with hypotension, tachycardia, and fever. If fluid resuscitation fails to restore blood pressure in septic shock, what is the first-line vasopressor?

3. A patient presents with urticaria, angioedema, and severe respiratory distress immediately after a bee sting. This clinical picture is most characteristic of which type of shock?

4. What is the single most important and immediate life-saving medication for a patient experiencing anaphylaxis?

5. What is the correct dose and route of administration for epinephrine in an adult with anaphylaxis?

6. A patient is in hypovolemic shock due to severe hemorrhage. What is the most appropriate initial intravenous fluid for resuscitation?

7. A patient with a recent myocardial infarction develops hypotension, pulmonary edema (crackles on auscultation), and cool, clammy skin. These findings are most suggestive of:

8. Distributive shock (e.g., septic, anaphylactic, neurogenic) is primarily characterized by:

9. In a patient with anaphylaxis who has significant laryngeal edema and stridor, what is the most definitive initial step for airway management?

10. What is the primary role of corticosteroids (e.g., hydrocortisone) in the management of anaphylaxis?

11. According to the “Sepsis-3” definition, a qSOFA score of ≥2 suggests a higher risk of poor outcomes. Which of the following is a component of the qSOFA score?

12. During fluid resuscitation for septic shock, what is the generally accepted initial target for Mean Arterial Pressure (MAP)?

13. A patient in a motor vehicle accident presents with hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, dry skin below a suspected C-spine injury. This presentation is classic for:

14. In the context of shock, a persistently elevated serum lactate level is an indicator of:

15. A patient with anaphylaxis has persistent wheezing and bronchospasm despite receiving intramuscular epinephrine. What is the most appropriate second-line treatment?

16. For an average-sized adult in septic or hypovolemic shock, what is the recommended initial crystalloid fluid bolus according to Surviving Sepsis guidelines?

17. Which of the following is a key feature of obstructive shock?

18. The immediate, life-saving intervention for a tension pneumothorax causing obstructive shock is:

19. A patient taking a beta-blocker is having anaphylaxis refractory to epinephrine. What medication should be considered?

20. Which of the following defines compensated shock?

21. What is the primary alpha-1 adrenergic effect of epinephrine in treating anaphylactic shock?

22. A patient with 40% total body surface area burns develops shock 12 hours post-injury. This is primarily what type of shock?

23. For a patient in shock without a suspected spinal injury, the ideal initial positioning is:

24. What is the primary role of H1 and H2 antagonists (e.g., diphenhydramine and ranitidine) in managing anaphylaxis?

25. Of the following clinical parameters, which is the most reliable real-time indicator of adequate end-organ perfusion during resuscitation from shock?