Definition Classification & Principles of Management MCQ Quiz | Fracture Basics

Welcome to this specialized quiz designed for MBBS students focusing on the fundamentals of fractures. This quiz covers the essential topics of definition, classification, and the core principles of fracture management. You will be tested on your understanding of various fracture types, key classification systems like Gustilo-Anderson and Salter-Harris, the process of bone healing, and the established protocols for treatment, from emergency care to final rehabilitation. This assessment consists of 25 multiple-choice questions aimed at reinforcing your theoretical knowledge. After completing the quiz, you can review your score and download a PDF document containing all the questions along with their correct answers for your future reference and study. Good luck!

1. Which of the following best defines a fracture?

2. A fracture occurring in a bone weakened by a pre-existing disease like a tumor or osteoporosis is known as a:

3. A fracture pattern typically caused by a twisting or torsional force on a long bone is:

4. According to the Gustilo-Anderson classification for open fractures, a wound >10 cm with extensive soft tissue stripping and gross contamination is classified as:

5. Which type of fracture is common in children and involves a break on one side of the bone cortex while the other side is only bent?

6. The three fundamental principles of definitive fracture management are often summarized as:

7. What is the most important immediate first aid principle for a suspected limb fracture in the field?

8. Closed reduction of a fracture is best described as:

9. Which of the following is an example of internal fixation used to ‘hold’ a fracture?

10. A Salter-Harris Type II fracture involves a fracture line that runs through:

11. The formation of a fibrocartilaginous callus is a hallmark of which type of bone healing?

12. A patient with a femoral shaft fracture develops dyspnea, a petechial rash on the chest, and confusion within 48 hours of injury. What is the most likely diagnosis?

13. The primary biomechanical advantage of an intramedullary nail for a femoral shaft fracture is:

14. What does the term “varus angulation” describe in a fracture deformity?

15. When a fracture fails to unite and all healing processes have ceased, it is termed a:

16. In the ATLS (Advanced Trauma Life Support) protocol for a multiple-trauma patient, the primary survey begins with ‘A’, which stands for:

17. An external fixator is most appropriately indicated in which of the following scenarios?

18. What is the very first stage of secondary (indirect) fracture healing?

19. Avascular necrosis (AVN) is a well-known late complication associated with fractures of which of the following bones?

20. A fracture where the bone is broken into more than two fragments is called a:

21. What is the primary goal of fracture reduction?

22. Which Salter-Harris classification type generally carries the worst prognosis due to the crushing injury to the physis (growth plate)?

23. Fixation that achieves ‘absolute stability’ with compression across the fracture site, such as with a lag screw and plate, aims to promote:

24. Which of the following is considered the earliest and most reliable clinical sign of acute compartment syndrome in a conscious patient?

25. What is the primary goal of the rehabilitation phase of fracture management?