Gonorrhea & Other Bacterial STDs MCQ Quiz | STDs

1. A 24-year-old male presents with a painful penile ulcer with a ragged, undermined edge and a gray, purulent base. He also has tender, suppurative inguinal lymphadenopathy. Gram stain of the exudate shows gram-negative coccobacilli in a “school of fish” pattern. What is the most likely causative organism?

2. Which of the following is the recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated urogenital gonorrhea in an adult, according to recent CDC guidelines, considering rising antimicrobial resistance?

3. A patient diagnosed with secondary syphilis presents with a diffuse maculopapular rash on the trunk, palms, and soles, along with generalized lymphadenopathy. Which diagnostic test would be most specific for confirming the active infection?

4. Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID) is a serious complication of which two common bacterial STDs?

5. The “groove sign,” characterized by inguinal lymphadenopathy above and below the inguinal ligament, is a classic finding in which condition?

6. A patient with untreated tertiary syphilis may develop a gumma. What is the characteristic histopathology of a gumma?

7. Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a complication of PID characterized by perihepatitis. What is the classic clinical finding?

8. A gram stain of urethral discharge from a male patient shows gram-negative diplococci within neutrophils. This finding is highly specific for infection with:

9. The Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction is an acute febrile reaction that can occur after the initiation of treatment for which STD?

10. A 28-year-old female presents with fever, polyarthralgia, and a sparse pustular rash on her extremities. She has a history of untreated cervicitis. A synovial fluid aspirate from her swollen knee is performed. What is the most likely diagnosis?

11. What is the most sensitive and specific diagnostic test for Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae infections?

12. Donovan bodies, which are Giemsa-stained intracellular organisms within macrophages, are pathognomonic for which disease?

13. Which of the following is the standard treatment for both early syphilis (primary, secondary, early latent) and late latent syphilis?

14. Argyll Robertson pupils, characterized by bilateral small pupils that constrict with accommodation but not with light, are a classic sign of:

15. A pregnant woman is diagnosed with chlamydia. Which of the following treatments is contraindicated for her?

16. The primary lesion of syphilis, a chancre, is best described as:

17. Which serovars of Chlamydia trachomatis are responsible for causing Lymphogranuloma Venereum (LGV)?

18. Ophthalmia neonatorum, a conjunctivitis in newborns, can be caused by vertical transmission of which organism?

19. A patient is treated for syphilis with penicillin. To monitor the effectiveness of the treatment, which test is most appropriate to follow over time?

20. Which of the following is a component of the Hutchinson triad seen in congenital syphilis?

21. The biphasic life cycle of Chlamydia trachomatis consists of an infectious, metabolically inert form and a non-infectious, metabolically active form. What are these forms called, respectively?

22. What is the mechanism of action of ceftriaxone, a key antibiotic in the treatment of gonorrhea?

23. A sexually active young man presents with urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis. What is the most likely diagnosis?

24. A patient from a tropical region presents with large, painless, beefy-red ulcerative lesions on the genitalia without regional lymphadenopathy. The lesions bleed easily on contact. What is the most probable diagnosis?

25. Why is dual therapy (e.g., ceftriaxone plus doxycycline) often recommended for pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) even if only one pathogen is identified?