Chromosomes MCQs With Answer

Chromosomes MCQs With Answer are essential revision tools for B.Pharm students studying genetics and cytogenetics. This concise, keyword-rich introduction covers chromosomal structure, karyotyping, chromatin organization, mitosis, meiosis, chromosomal abnormalities, gene mapping, and diagnostic techniques like FISH and CGH. Focused on pharmacology-relevant genetics, these MCQs help reinforce concepts such as centromere types, chromosomal banding, aneuploidy, translocations, and dosage compensation. Each question targets core learning outcomes required for drug action, toxicogenomics, and personalized medicine. Clear explanations foster critical thinking needed in pharmacy practice and research. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. What is a chromosome?

  • A linear molecule of carbohydrate
  • A complex of DNA and proteins carrying genetic information
  • A membrane-bound organelle
  • A type of ribonucleic acid

Correct Answer: A complex of DNA and proteins carrying genetic information

Q2. Which proteins are primarily involved in chromatin packaging?

  • Actins
  • Histones
  • Keratin
  • Collagen

Correct Answer: Histones

Q3. The basic unit of chromatin is called:

  • Helix
  • Nucleosome
  • Centromere
  • Chromatid

Correct Answer: Nucleosome

Q4. During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatids separate?

  • Prophase
  • Metaphase
  • Anaphase
  • Telophase

Correct Answer: Anaphase

Q5. A karyotype displays chromosomes arranged by:

  • Sequence of nucleotides
  • Size and banding pattern
  • Number of genes
  • Transcriptional activity

Correct Answer: Size and banding pattern

Q6. Which technique is used to detect specific DNA sequences on chromosomes?

  • Western blotting
  • FISH (Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization)
  • Mass spectrometry
  • ELISA

Correct Answer: FISH (Fluorescence In Situ Hybridization)

Q7. Aneuploidy refers to:

  • Changes in base sequence only
  • Loss or gain of individual chromosomes
  • Structural rearrangement within a chromosome
  • Complete duplication of the genome

Correct Answer: Loss or gain of individual chromosomes

Q8. Down syndrome is most commonly caused by:

  • Monosomy X
  • Trisomy 21
  • Deletion of chromosome 5p
  • Balanced translocation between 9 and 22

Correct Answer: Trisomy 21

Q9. Which chromosomal abnormality is characterized by a missing chromosome?

  • Aneuploidy
  • Monosomy
  • Trisomy
  • Isochromosome

Correct Answer: Monosomy

Q10. The centromere function is to:

  • Initiate DNA replication
  • Attach sister chromatids to spindle microtubules
  • Transcribe ribosomal RNA
  • Serve as origin of translation

Correct Answer: Attach sister chromatids to spindle microtubules

Q11. Telomeres are important because they:

  • Code for essential proteins
  • Protect chromosome ends from degradation
  • Bind transcription factors
  • Promote homologous recombination

Correct Answer: Protect chromosome ends from degradation

Q12. Which enzyme extends telomeres in germ cells?

  • DNA polymerase I
  • Telomerase
  • Helicase
  • Ligase

Correct Answer: Telomerase

Q13. A reciprocal translocation involves:

  • Loss of a chromosomal segment
  • Exchange of segments between two chromosomes
  • Duplication of a chromosome arm
  • Formation of a ring chromosome

Correct Answer: Exchange of segments between two chromosomes

Q14. Cri-du-chat syndrome is associated with:

  • Deletion on chromosome 5p
  • Trisomy 13
  • Inversion on chromosome 9
  • Monosomy 21

Correct Answer: Deletion on chromosome 5p

Q15. Which banding technique is commonly used for karyotyping human chromosomes?

  • SDS-PAGE
  • G-banding (Giemsa)
  • Southern blotting
  • Co-immunoprecipitation

Correct Answer: G-banding (Giemsa)

Q16. Dosage compensation in mammals is achieved by:

  • Increasing transcription from the Y chromosome
  • X-chromosome inactivation in females
  • Doubling expression from autosomes
  • Deleting one X in males

Correct Answer: X-chromosome inactivation in females

Q17. Barr body represents:

  • Active Y chromosome
  • Inactive X chromosome
  • Extra mitochondrial DNA
  • Duplicated centromere

Correct Answer: Inactive X chromosome

Q18. Which structure contains sister chromatids joined together?

  • Centromere
  • Telomere
  • Nucleolus
  • Ribosome

Correct Answer: Centromere

Q19. Which of the following is a structural chromosomal abnormality?

  • Trisomy
  • Monosomy
  • Translocation
  • Polyploidy

Correct Answer: Translocation

Q20. Robertsonian translocation typically involves which chromosomes?

  • Small acrocentric chromosomes fused at centromeres
  • Large metacentric chromosomes only
  • Telomeric fusions of all chromosomes
  • Partial deletions of X chromosome

Correct Answer: Small acrocentric chromosomes fused at centromeres

Q21. Which technique compares copy number variations across the genome?

  • Western blot
  • Comparative genomic hybridization (CGH)
  • RT-PCR
  • Chromatin immunoprecipitation

Correct Answer: Comparative genomic hybridization (CGH)

Q22. Polyploidy is defined as:

  • Loss of single chromosome
  • More than two complete sets of chromosomes
  • Exchange between nonhomologous chromosomes
  • Mutation in a single gene

Correct Answer: More than two complete sets of chromosomes

Q23. The short arm of a chromosome is designated as:

  • q
  • p
  • c
  • r

Correct Answer: p

Q24. A chromatid is best described as:

  • One half of a replicated chromosome
  • A circular DNA molecule
  • The entire genome
  • A mitochondrial fragment

Correct Answer: One half of a replicated chromosome

Q25. Which disorder results from nondisjunction of sex chromosomes producing a single X chromosome?

  • Klinefelter syndrome
  • Turner syndrome
  • Down syndrome
  • Edwards syndrome

Correct Answer: Turner syndrome

Q26. Klinefelter syndrome is typically which karyotype?

  • 46, XY
  • 47, XXY
  • 45, X
  • 47, XYY

Correct Answer: 47, XXY

Q27. Which chromosome abnormality is associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?

  • Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22))
  • Trisomy 21
  • Deletion 5q
  • Duplication 1q

Correct Answer: Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22))

Q28. Euchromatin is characterized by:

  • Transcriptionally inactive, densely packed chromatin
  • Transcriptionally active, loosely packed chromatin
  • Only found in mitochondria
  • Exclusive to prokaryotes

Correct Answer: Transcriptionally active, loosely packed chromatin

Q29. Heterochromatin often contains:

  • Highly expressed housekeeping genes
  • Repeats and gene-poor regions
  • Only telomeric sequences
  • Only centromeric proteins

Correct Answer: Repeats and gene-poor regions

Q30. Which method is commonly used to prepare metaphase chromosomes for karyotyping?

  • Treating cells with colchicine to arrest mitosis
  • Using DNase to fragment DNA
  • Transfecting cells with plasmids
  • Applying proteases to digest histones

Correct Answer: Treating cells with colchicine to arrest mitosis

Q31. An isochromosome results from:

  • Duplication of telomeres
  • Mirror-image duplication of chromosome arms
  • Loss of entire chromosome
  • Insertion of viral DNA

Correct Answer: Mirror-image duplication of chromosome arms

Q32. Microdeletion syndromes are best detected by:

  • Standard karyotyping only
  • High-resolution techniques like FISH or array CGH
  • Protein electrophoresis
  • Metabolic assays

Correct Answer: High-resolution techniques like FISH or array CGH

Q33. Which term describes a chromosome that has centromere near the middle?

  • Acrocentric
  • Metacentric
  • Telocentric
  • Subtelomeric

Correct Answer: Metacentric

Q34. Homologous chromosomes are:

  • Identical sister chromatids
  • One paternal and one maternal chromosome with same genes
  • Chromosomes in different species
  • Only sex chromosomes

Correct Answer: One paternal and one maternal chromosome with same genes

Q35. Crossing over occurs during which meiotic phase?

  • Meiosis I prophase (specifically pachytene)
  • Meiosis II anaphase
  • Mitosis metaphase
  • S phase of interphase

Correct Answer: Meiosis I prophase (specifically pachytene)

Q36. The Philadelphia chromosome results from a fusion between which genes?

  • BCR on 9 and ABL on 22
  • ABL on 9 and BCR on 22
  • MYC and BCR
  • TP53 and BRCA1

Correct Answer: ABL on 9 and BCR on 22

Q37. Which chromosomal alteration can be balanced with no loss of genetic material?

  • Deletion
  • Duplication
  • Balanced translocation
  • Inversion with breakpoints in genes

Correct Answer: Balanced translocation

Q38. Which of the following is a consequence of chromosomal duplication?

  • Loss of gene function only
  • Potential gene dosage effects and novel phenotypes
  • Always embryonic lethality
  • Reduction of chromosomal size

Correct Answer: Potential gene dosage effects and novel phenotypes

Q39. Which lab technique separates chromosomes by size and shape for visualization?

  • Flow cytometry for chromosomes
  • G-banded karyotyping
  • ELISA
  • Mass spectrometry

Correct Answer: G-banded karyotyping

Q40. In cytogenetics, mosaicism means:

  • All cells have the same genotype
  • Presence of two or more genetically different cell lines in one individual
  • Only germline mutations exist
  • Chromosomes are fragmented into pieces

Correct Answer: Presence of two or more genetically different cell lines in one individual

Q41. Which term describes relocation of a chromosomal segment to a different chromosome position?

  • Deletion
  • Insertion
  • Translocation
  • Amplification

Correct Answer: Translocation

Q42. Which chromosome abnormality often arises from unequal crossing over?

  • Point mutation
  • Duplication and deletion
  • Nondisjunction only
  • Telomerase activation

Correct Answer: Duplication and deletion

Q43. Which diagnostic sample is most commonly used for prenatal karyotyping?

  • Urine
  • Chorionic villus sampling or amniotic fluid cells
  • Sputum
  • Saliva

Correct Answer: Chorionic villus sampling or amniotic fluid cells

Q44. The centromere divides the chromosome into two arms; the longer arm is called:

  • p arm
  • q arm
  • c arm
  • r arm

Correct Answer: q arm

Q45. Which feature distinguishes submetacentric from acrocentric chromosomes?

  • Submetacentric has centromere slightly off center; acrocentric has centromere near one end
  • Submetacentric is circular; acrocentric is linear
  • Submetacentric lacks telomeres
  • There is no difference

Correct Answer: Submetacentric has centromere slightly off center; acrocentric has centromere near one end

Q46. Which chromosomal phenomenon contributes to genetic diversity in gametes?

  • Nondisjunction during mitosis
  • Crossing over and independent assortment
  • Telomere shortening
  • Histone acetylation only

Correct Answer: Crossing over and independent assortment

Q47. Which is a hallmark of chromosomal instability in cancer cells?

  • Consistent diploid karyotype
  • High rate of aneuploidy and structural rearrangements
  • Absence of mutations
  • Stable telomere length

Correct Answer: High rate of aneuploidy and structural rearrangements

Q48. Which genetic technique maps genes by measuring recombination frequencies?

  • Linkage mapping
  • Western blot
  • FISH only
  • Southern blot exclusively

Correct Answer: Linkage mapping

Q49. Which statement about sex chromosomes is correct?

  • Females are typically XY and males XX
  • Sex chromosomes determine biological sex and carry sex-linked genes
  • Y chromosome is larger than X chromosome
  • Sex chromosomes are always homologous along entire length

Correct Answer: Sex chromosomes determine biological sex and carry sex-linked genes

Q50. Which of the following best describes array CGH advantage over conventional karyotyping?

  • Array CGH detects balanced translocations more effectively
  • Array CGH has higher resolution to detect submicroscopic copy number variations
  • Array CGH sequences whole genomes faster
  • Array CGH requires dividing cells only

Correct Answer: Array CGH has higher resolution to detect submicroscopic copy number variations

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