Parturition MCQs With Answer

Parturition MCQs With Answer for B.Pharm students provide targeted practice on the physiology, pharmacology, and clinical management of labor. This concise, exam-focused set covers hormonal control of labor, uterotonics and tocolytics, prostaglandins, oxytocin pharmacodynamics, analgesia and anesthesia considerations, complications like preterm labor, dystocia, and postpartum hemorrhage, plus drug choices, dosages and contraindications relevant to pharmacy practice. Each question reinforces critical concepts, prescribing principles, and safe medication use during childbirth. Ideal for revision, quizzes, and internal assessments, these MCQs bridge basic science and clinical decision-making so B.Pharm students gain confidence in obstetric pharmacotherapy. Now let’s test your knowledge with 50 MCQs on this topic.

Q1. What is the primary physiological definition of parturition?

• The process of fertilization
• The onset of lactation
• The process of childbirth including labor and delivery
• Formation of the placenta

Correct Answer: The process of childbirth including labor and delivery

Q2. Which hormone is most directly responsible for uterine contractions during labor?

• Progesterone
• Oxytocin
• Estrogen
• Relaxin

Correct Answer: Oxytocin

Q3. Which drug is a synthetic analogue of oxytocin used to induce or augment labor?

• Misoprostol
• Dinoprostone
• Carboprost
• Oxytocin infusion (synthetic)

Correct Answer: Oxytocin infusion (synthetic)

Q4. Which class of drugs is used to suppress preterm labor?

• Uterotonics
• Tocolytics
• Antibiotics
• Antihypertensives

Correct Answer: Tocolytics

Q5. Which prostaglandin analogue is commonly used for cervical ripening and induction?

• Misoprostol
• Terbutaline
• Magnesium sulfate
• Ergonovine

Correct Answer: Misoprostol

Q6. Which mechanism best explains how prostaglandins aid parturition?

• Inhibition of oxytocin release
• Stimulation of cervical ripening and uterine contractions
• Increasing progesterone synthesis
• Blocking calcium influx into myometrium

Correct Answer: Stimulation of cervical ripening and uterine contractions

Q7. Which tocolytic acts by blocking beta-2 adrenergic receptors?

• Terbutaline
• Nifedipine
• Atosiban
• Indomethacin

Correct Answer: Terbutaline

Q8. What is the primary action of nifedipine when used as a tocolytic?

• Calcium channel blockade reducing uterine contractions
• Beta-agonist stimulation increasing relaxant tone
• Prostaglandin synthesis enhancement
• Oxytocin receptor agonism

Correct Answer: Calcium channel blockade reducing uterine contractions

Q9. Which drug is an oxytocin receptor antagonist used as a tocolytic in some regions?

• Atosiban
• Misoprostol
• Ergometrine
• Dinoprostone

Correct Answer: Atosiban

Q10. Which maternal complication is directly prevented by timely use of uterotonics postpartum?

• Uterine atony leading to postpartum hemorrhage
• Placenta accreta
• Pre-eclampsia
• Deep vein thrombosis

Correct Answer: Uterine atony leading to postpartum hemorrhage

Q11. Which uterotonic is contraindicated in patients with severe hypertension due to vasoconstrictive effects?

• Oxytocin
• Ergometrine (ergonovine)
• Misoprostol
• Dinoprostone

Correct Answer: Ergometrine (ergonovine)

Q12. What is the Bishop score used to assess?

• Fetal lung maturity
• Cervical favorability for induction of labor
• Degree of maternal anemia
• Placental position

Correct Answer: Cervical favorability for induction of labor

Q13. Which indicator on a partograph signals active phase arrest of labor?

• Progressing cervical dilation every hour
• No cervical dilation for >2 hours in active phase
• Regular contractions every 5 minutes
• Fetal descent of 1 cm/hour

Correct Answer: No cervical dilation for >2 hours in active phase

Q14. Which medication is preferred for neuroprotection when preterm labor threatens before 32 weeks?

• Magnesium sulfate
• Tetracycline
• Misoprostol
• Terbutaline

Correct Answer: Magnesium sulfate

Q15. What is the principal fetal risk associated with maternal use of NSAIDs like indomethacin in late pregnancy?

• Premature closure of ductus arteriosus
• Neural tube defects
• Increased fetal growth
• Placental abruption

Correct Answer: Premature closure of ductus arteriosus

Q16. Which route of administration is common for misoprostol in cervical ripening?

• Oral only
• Vaginal or oral
• Intravenous only
• Intramuscular only

Correct Answer: Vaginal or oral

Q17. Which drug is a prostaglandin F2α analogue used for severe postpartum hemorrhage refractory to oxytocin?

• Dinoprostone
• Carboprost tromethamine
• Atosiban
• Terbutaline

Correct Answer: Carboprost tromethamine

Q18. What is a major adverse effect of ergometrine when used for uterine contraction?

• Hypotension
• Severe hypertension and coronary vasospasm
• Hyperglycemia
• Renal failure

Correct Answer: Severe hypertension and coronary vasospasm

Q19. Which fetal monitoring sign suggests fetal hypoxia during labor?

• Accelerations in heart rate
• Persistent late decelerations
• Moderate variability
• Short term variability increase

Correct Answer: Persistent late decelerations

Q20. What is the pharmacological purpose of antenatal corticosteroids in threatened preterm birth?

• Tocolysis and prolong pregnancy
• Enhance fetal lung maturity and reduce RDS
• Prevent maternal infection
• Induce uterine contractions

Correct Answer: Enhance fetal lung maturity and reduce RDS

Q21. Which is the first-line agent for augmentation of labor after inadequate contractions?

• Intravenous oxytocin infusion
• Intramuscular ergometrine
• Oral misoprostol only
• Subcutaneous terbutaline

Correct Answer: Intravenous oxytocin infusion

Q22. Which pharmacokinetic consideration is most relevant for oxytocin administration?

• Long half-life requiring weekly dosing
• Rapid metabolism and short half-life, requiring continuous infusion
• Extensive oral bioavailability
• Hepatic enzyme induction increases action

Correct Answer: Rapid metabolism and short half-life, requiring continuous infusion

Q23. Which condition is a contraindication to induction with prostaglandins or oxytocin?

• Prior cesarean section with classical uterine scar
• Post-term pregnancy with a favorable Bishop score
• Maternal gestational diabetes well controlled
• Prolonged rupture of membranes

Correct Answer: Prior cesarean section with classical uterine scar

Q24. Which monitoring is essential when administering high-dose oxytocin?

• Serum magnesium
• Continuous maternal ECG only
• Maternal blood pressure, fluid balance and fetal heart rate
• Daily liver function tests

Correct Answer: Maternal blood pressure, fluid balance and fetal heart rate

Q25. What is the major risk of excessive uterine stimulation (hyperstimulation) during induction?

• Improved fetal oxygenation
• Uterine rupture and fetal distress
• Reduced maternal temperature
• Decreased risk of hemorrhage

Correct Answer: Uterine rupture and fetal distress

Q26. Which drug is commonly used for analgesia during labor and has opioid agonist properties?

• Fentanyl
• Oxytocin
• Magnesium sulfate
• Ergometrine

Correct Answer: Fentanyl

Q27. Which statement about epidural analgesia during labor is pharmacologically correct?

• Epidural blocks uterine contractions permanently
• Epidural provides regional analgesia and may prolong second stage of labor
• Epidural causes irreversible motor paralysis
• Epidural is contraindicated in all hypertensive patients

Correct Answer: Epidural provides regional analgesia and may prolong second stage of labor

Q28. In management of preterm labor, what is the primary role of tocolysis?

• Cure the cause of preterm labor permanently
• Temporarily delay delivery to allow fetal maturation and interventions
• Accelerate cervical dilation
• Induce immediate delivery

Correct Answer: Temporarily delay delivery to allow fetal maturation and interventions

Q29. Which antibiotic is recommended for group B streptococcus prophylaxis during labor?

• Ampicillin
• Vancomycin only
• Metronidazole
• Oral azithromycin

Correct Answer: Ampicillin

Q30. Which feature characterizes dystocia of the powers?

• Abnormal fetal presentation like breech
• Ineffective uterine contractions or poor maternal effort
• Pelvic bone abnormality
• Placental insufficiency

Correct Answer: Ineffective uterine contractions or poor maternal effort

Q31. Which medication is contraindicated for cervical ripening in women with previous uterine surgery in many guidelines?

• Dinoprostone vaginal pessary
• Misoprostol
• Intravenous oxytocin
• Fentanyl

Correct Answer: Misoprostol

Q32. Which maternal physiological change occurs to prepare for labor by increasing contractility?

• Progesterone increases markedly
• Estrogen/progesterone ratio rises and oxytocin receptor expression increases
• Relaxin levels spike to inhibit contractions
• Decrease in gap junctions between myometrial cells

Correct Answer: Estrogen/progesterone ratio rises and oxytocin receptor expression increases

Q33. Which assessment tool helps detect duration and progress of labor at the bedside?

• Bishop score
• Partograph
• APGAR score
• Serum oxytocin level

Correct Answer: Partograph

Q34. Which drug used for hemorrhage has major bronchospasm risk and is avoided in asthma?

• Carboprost tromethamine
• Oxytocin infusion
• Methylergometrine
• Misoprostol

Correct Answer: Carboprost tromethamine

Q35. What is the immediate pharmacological management for uterine atony after delivery?

• IV oxytocin bolus/infusion and uterine massage
• Start oral antibiotics only
• Administer tocolytics
• Delay any uterotonic therapy for 24 hours

Correct Answer: IV oxytocin bolus/infusion and uterine massage

Q36. Which maternal electrolyte must be monitored when using magnesium sulfate?

• Serum sodium
• Serum magnesium and deep tendon reflexes
• Serum potassium only
• Cerebrospinal fluid calcium

Correct Answer: Serum magnesium and deep tendon reflexes

Q37. Which statement best describes misoprostol dosing considerations for induction?

• High doses are always safer
• Lower repeated doses reduce risk of hyperstimulation compared with large single doses
• Intravenous misoprostol is the standard
• Misoprostol has no dose-related adverse effects

Correct Answer: Lower repeated doses reduce risk of hyperstimulation compared with large single doses

Q38. Which factor increases the risk of uterine rupture during labor augmentation?

• Prior low transverse cesarean only
• Use of high-dose oxytocin or prostaglandins with uterine scar
• Nulliparity only
• Use of epidural analgesia

Correct Answer: Use of high-dose oxytocin or prostaglandins with uterine scar

Q39. In pharmacology of parturition, what role does nitric oxide have on the uterus?

• Promotes uterine contraction
• Acts as a local relaxant, maintaining uterine quiescence
• Increases prostaglandin synthesis
• Directly stimulates oxytocin release

Correct Answer: Acts as a local relaxant, maintaining uterine quiescence

Q40. Which practice reduces neonatal infection risk with prolonged rupture of membranes?

• No interventions needed
• Administer intrapartum antibiotics according to protocol
• Routine tocolysis for all cases
• Immediate cesarean for all patients

Correct Answer: Administer intrapartum antibiotics according to protocol

Q41. Which drug is preferred to treat eclampsia seizures during labor?

• Diazepam
• Magnesium sulfate bolus then infusion
• Phenytoin
• Labetalol

Correct Answer: Magnesium sulfate bolus then infusion

Q42. Which pharmacologic agent can be used to induce fetal lung maturation when delivery is imminent?

• Beta blockers
• Antenatal corticosteroids (e.g., betamethasone)
• Oxytocin
• Ergometrine

Correct Answer: Antenatal corticosteroids (e.g., betamethasone)

Q43. What is a pharmacological concern when combining oxytocin with ergometrine?

• No additive effects
• Increased risk of hypertension and coronary spasm from ergometrine must be monitored while oxytocin causes uterine tone
• Combination produces tocolysis
• They neutralize each other’s effects

Correct Answer: Increased risk of hypertension and coronary spasm from ergometrine must be monitored while oxytocin causes uterine tone

Q44. Which neonatal score assesses newborn condition immediately after birth?

• Bishop score
• APGAR score
• Partograph
• Glasgow coma scale

Correct Answer: APGAR score

Q45. Which agent has been used as a cervical ripening mechanical method rather than pharmacologic?

• Balloon catheter
• Intravenous oxytocin only
• Oral misoprostol only
• Terbutaline infusion

Correct Answer: Balloon catheter

Q46. Which condition is an obstetric emergency often linked to severe hemorrhage after delivery?

• Placenta previa requiring no intervention
• Uterine inversion or uterine atony
• Normal third stage of labor
• Physiological lochia

Correct Answer: Uterine inversion or uterine atony

Q47. Which tocolytic has fetal neuroprotective benefits but is not a primary tocolytic?

• Magnesium sulfate
• Misoprostol
• Ergometrine
• Dinoprostone

Correct Answer: Magnesium sulfate

Q48. What is the effect of beta-agonist tocolytics on maternal heart rate?

• Bradycardia
• Tachycardia and palpitations
• No cardiovascular effects
• Immediate hypotension without tachycardia

Correct Answer: Tachycardia and palpitations

Q49. For a B.Pharm student, why is understanding drug transfer across the placenta important in parturition?

• It is only theoretical with no clinical relevance
• To predict fetal exposure, safety, and dosing considerations of maternal medications
• Because drugs never cross the placenta
• To ensure drugs increase maternal blood pressure

Correct Answer: To predict fetal exposure, safety, and dosing considerations of maternal medications

Q50. Which statement best summarizes safe pharmacotherapy in parturition for pharmacists?

• All obstetric drugs are safe without monitoring
• Balance maternal benefit and fetal risk, monitor maternal and fetal status, and follow protocols for dosing and contraindications
• Medications are unnecessary in labor management
• Use the highest doses to ensure effectiveness

Correct Answer: Balance maternal benefit and fetal risk, monitor maternal and fetal status, and follow protocols for dosing and contraindications

G S Sachin

I am a Registered Pharmacist under the Pharmacy Act, 1948, and the founder of PharmacyFreak.com. I hold a Bachelor of Pharmacy degree from Rungta College of Pharmaceutical Science and Research. With a strong academic foundation and practical knowledge, I am committed to providing accurate, easy-to-understand content to support pharmacy students and professionals. My aim is to make complex pharmaceutical concepts accessible and useful for real-world application.

Mail- Sachin@pharmacyfreak.com